Phil 1.14 (not 3.14)
πέποιθα is collocated with ἐν κυρίῳ several other times in Paul: Gal 5.10, Phil 2.24, 2 Thess 3.4. My guess is the focal position here is for emphasis, as many (but not all) commentators think. Nevertheless I would be hard put to it to explain exactly why Paul emphasizes it.
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The idea that in Matt 25.15f εὐθέως would be inappropriate with the preceding verb is countered by H A W Meyer: "And it is precisely in connection with ἀπεδήμεσεν that εὐθέως is seen to have a peculiar significance, that, namely, of showing that absolute independence was allowed in regard to the way...
- July 14th, 2011, 6:33 pm
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: ARCISUNAGWGOS References
- Replies: 4
- Views: 1348
The article A LEXICON OF THE NEW TESTAMENT WITH DOCUMENTARY PARALLELS: SOME INTERIM ENTRIES, 1 by G. H. R. HORSLEY and JOHN A. L. LEE in Filología Neotestamentaria 10 (1997) 55-84 has 7 documentary examples of this word on pp. 66-68, some of which are c.1. Unfortunately it's no longer on-line at bsw...