Search found 97 matches

by Mike Baber
February 21st, 2012, 4:37 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: στοιχεῖα
Replies: 11
Views: 2381

Re: στοιχεῖα

Jason, You may also be interested in another usage of the word, and that is, in reference to the heavenly bodies. See Thayer's note #3 on the word. http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/Lexicon.cfm?strongs=G4747 Click on "Click here for the rest of the entry" to expand the lexicon entry. For e...
by Mike Baber
February 21st, 2012, 4:18 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Romans 8:11
Replies: 2
Views: 1264

Romans 8:11

I've often seen Romans 8:11 used as a prooftext that the "Holy Spirit raised Jesus from the dead." Greek text: εἰ δὲ τὸ πνεῦμα τοῦ ἐγείραντος Ἰησοῦν ἐκ νεκρῶν οἰκεῖ ἐν ὑμῖν ὁ ἐγείρας τὸν Χριστὸν ἐκ νεκρῶν ζῳοποιήσει καὶ τὰ θνητὰ σώματα ὑμῶν διὰ τὸ ἐνοικοῦν αὐτοῦ Πνεῦμα ἐν ὑμῖν English translation: B...
by Mike Baber
September 9th, 2011, 5:52 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Critique of My Paper on Matthew 4:10 and Philippians 3:3
Replies: 5
Views: 953

Re: Critique of My Paper on Matthew 4:10 and Philippians 3:3

The latter obviously. Perhaps it has something to do with the verb being in the participial form. My guess is that it's like the other two participial occurrences where no indirect object is explicitly stated (e.g., θεω), and νηστείαις καὶ δεήσεσιν is an adverbial phrase modifying λατρεύουσα, in ad...
by Mike Baber
September 8th, 2011, 4:53 pm
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: Singular head noun, followed by two genitives and καὶ
Replies: 1
Views: 1518

Singular head noun, followed by two genitives and καὶ

I'm attempting to argue that Revelation 22:3 really refers to two thrones by the phrase καὶ ὁ θρόνος τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ τοῦ ἀρνίου, since Revelation 3:21 appears to indicate two thrones, viz. τῷ θρόνῳ μου and τῷ θρόνῳ αὐτοῦ. In Revelation 22:3, there is a singular head noun followed by two nouns in the ge...
by Mike Baber
September 8th, 2011, 3:32 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Critique of My Paper on Matthew 4:10 and Philippians 3:3
Replies: 5
Views: 953

Re: Critique of My Paper on Matthew 4:10 and Philippians 3:3

The latter obviously. Perhaps it has something to do with the verb being in the participial form. My guess is that it's like the other two participial occurrences where no indirect object is explicitly stated (e.g., θεω), and νηστείαις καὶ δεήσεσιν is an adverbial phrase modifying λατρεύουσα, in add...
by Mike Baber
September 8th, 2011, 2:01 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Critique of My Paper on Matthew 4:10 and Philippians 3:3
Replies: 5
Views: 953

Critique of My Paper on Matthew 4:10 and Philippians 3:3

Could the learned in Greek critique the grammatical arguments in my paper? I hope this is okay. If not, please delete at your leisure.

Here is a link to it. Thank you.
by Mike Baber
August 23rd, 2011, 3:21 am
Forum: New Testament
Topic: ἐγερῶ (John 2:19) and ἠγέρθη (John 2:22) --- Voices
Replies: 4
Views: 1043

ἐγερῶ (John 2:19) and ἠγέρθη (John 2:22) --- Voices

John 2:19 ἀπεκρίθη ὁ Ἰησοῦς καὶ εἶπεν αὐτοῖς Λύσατε τὸν ναὸν τοῦτον καὶ ἐν τρισὶν ἡμέραις ἐγερῶ αὐτόν John 2:22 ὅτε οὖν ἠγέρθη ἐκ νεκρῶν ἐμνήσθησαν οἱ μαθηταὶ αὐτοῦ ὅτι τοῦτο ἔλεγεν αὐτοῖς καὶ ἐπίστευσαν τῇ γραφῇ καὶ τῷ λόγῳ ὦ εἶπεν ὁ Ἰησοῦς Why does the verb ἐγερῶ change from active (John 2:19) to ...
by Mike Baber
August 20th, 2011, 8:09 pm
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: Main Verbs
Replies: 6
Views: 3606

Re: Main Verbs

Can an infinitive be a main verb in a sentence? Scott Lawson Sure. For example, Philippians 1:21. ἐμοὶ γὰρ τὸ ζῆν Χριστὸς καὶ τὸ ἀποθανεῖν κέρδος I don't know what qualifies as a "main verb," in a sentence, but since the only verbs in Philippians 1:21 are infinitives, I no longer need to know. :lol:
by Mike Baber
August 20th, 2011, 8:04 pm
Forum: Syntax and Grammar
Topic: θεὸς πατήρ and convertible propositions (per Wallace)
Replies: 3
Views: 2590

θεὸς πατήρ and convertible propositions (per Wallace)

I'll try to keep this as theologically deficient as possible and instead focused on syntax. 1. Is the appositional phrase θεὸς πατήρ a convertible proposition (per Wallace)? 2. If so, does this mean that πατήρ ("the Father") is the only θεὸς ("God")? Also, on this subject, I told someone that even i...
by Mike Baber
August 18th, 2011, 12:20 pm
Forum: New Testament
Topic: Ephesians 1:4
Replies: 5
Views: 1379

Re: Ephesians 1:4

Normally B-Greek is about understanding the Greek, not about translation. However, I would avoid "immaculate" simply because in English it has technical associations not implied by ἀμώμους in Greek (even though from it's Latin etymology is parallel to the Greek). I would also not have ἐν ἀγάπῃ modi...

Go to advanced search