Search found 259 matches
- March 14th, 2012, 1:06 am
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: Romans 4:18 - παρ’ ἐλπίδα ἐπ’ ἐλπίδι
- Replies: 9
- Views: 2177
Re: Romans 4:18 - παρ’ ἐλπίδα ἐπ’ ἐλπίδι
I notice that most translations "seem to omit" παρα and render επι as "against". How come? I think you're misreading the translations. Good ol' KJV, for example, renders "Who against hope believed in hope" — 'against hope' being their treatment of παρ’ ἐλπίδα and 'in h...
- March 3rd, 2012, 11:59 pm
- Forum: Word Meanings
- Topic: Word-Study Fallacies
- Replies: 5
- Views: 3021
Re: Word-Study Fallacies
One man's empty argument is another man's midrash.David Lim wrote:So I cannot believe the suggestion that two different meanings of "διαθηκη" are used in Hebrews, unless we think that the author of Hebrews was just making an empty argument.
- February 27th, 2012, 7:18 pm
- Forum: What does this text mean?
- Topic: Hebrews 6:1 φερωμεθα
- Replies: 18
- Views: 4036
Re: Hebrews 6:1 φερωμεθα
Professor Conrad: I like your dynamic rendering. I think it largely captures the sense. One question: I note you take τελειότητα as referring to the consummation of the λόγον rather than to the spiritual maturity of the readers. Does the presence of the article with τελειότητα influence this choice?...
- February 27th, 2012, 1:06 am
- Forum: What does this text mean?
- Topic: Hebrews 6:1 φερωμεθα
- Replies: 18
- Views: 4036
Re: Hebrews 6:1 φερωμεθα
Professor Conrad: Love your description of the MP imperative as "consent to such a process and actively pursue it." Would you view in similar terms the 3rd-person imperative? I'm thinking of a text such as Colossians 2:16... μη ουν τις υμας κρινετω εν βρωσει η εν ποσει η εν μερει εορτης η ...
- February 21st, 2012, 11:57 pm
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: Romans 8:11
- Replies: 2
- Views: 2320
Re: Romans 8:11
Yet another example of the abuse of Greek by people who can't read it.Mike Baber wrote:I've often seen Romans 8:11 used as a prooftext that the "Holy Spirit raised Jesus from the dead."
You're quite correct, Mike.
- February 19th, 2012, 1:57 am
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: λάθρᾳ in Matt 1:19
- Replies: 26
- Views: 7577
Re: λάθρᾳ in Matt 1:19
David Instone-Brewer in Divorce and Remarriage in the Bible understands that Joseph was planning to use a Hillelite 'any matter' divorce, which "required no public trial, no evidence brought by witnesses, and very little fuss... a quiet and relatively private procedure" (p.115). If λαθραῖο...
- January 26th, 2012, 3:26 am
- Forum: What does this text mean?
- Topic: Ephesians 2:8 - τοῦτο
- Replies: 6
- Views: 1388
Re: Ephesians 2:8 - τοῦτο
On the other hand, I have no problem with πίστις as the antecedent because (1) in Greek you can say αὕτη ἐστιν πίστις or τούτ’ ἐστιν πίστις Mark: Can you cite any examples of the neuter τοῦτο being used in this manner? All the NT examples, at least, of τούτ’ ἐστιν introducing a non-neuter predicate...
- January 20th, 2012, 12:58 am
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: Acts 2:4, the article with the/a holy spirit
- Replies: 3
- Views: 1865
Re: Acts 2:4, the article with the/a holy spirit
This question probably ventures more deeply into theology than is appropriate for B-Greek, but I would answer with a resounding NO . The use of the article is quite complex and no two languages — e.g., Greek and English — use the article identically. Thomson's underlying idea presumably is that ther...
- January 12th, 2012, 10:16 pm
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: Luke 6:12 - odd genitive
- Replies: 5
- Views: 2011
Re: Luke 6:12 - odd genitive
Would you consider Mark 11:22 similar?
ο ιησους λεγει αυτοις εχετε πιστιν θεου
ο ιησους λεγει αυτοις εχετε πιστιν θεου
- January 6th, 2012, 1:08 am
- Forum: Church Fathers and Patristic Greek Texts
- Topic: The Apostolic Creed
- Replies: 9
- Views: 6591
Re: The Apostolic Creed
Does the ἐπὶ in παθόντα ἐπὶ Ποντίου Πιλάτου mean something like 'at the hands of'?