Search found 63 matches
- July 24th, 2018, 9:18 am
- Forum: Church Fathers and Patristic Greek Texts
- Topic: Translation of an Excerpt From a Greek Text
- Replies: 8
- Views: 2526
Re: Translation of an Excerpt From a Greek Text
As the text stands, your translation is fairly accurate. I would translate "πρὸς αὐτοὺς διαλεγόμενος" as "while arguing his point with them" instead of "told them". And I agree with the editor's punctuation which makes Stephen answer his own question. It isn't plausible...
- July 12th, 2018, 12:25 pm
- Forum: New Testament
- Topic: "We have no such custom" as being contentious???
- Replies: 8
- Views: 2698
Re: "We have no such custom" as being contentious???
This is not written by someone who knows Greek. It is not completely clear what "such custom" points back to, but it has nothing to do with the case or gender here. It is a matter of interpretation. In isolation this could very well point back to "being contentious" or "seem...
- June 23rd, 2018, 2:38 pm
- Forum: Syntax and Grammar
- Topic: Genitive construction in 2 Corinthians 3:6
- Replies: 4
- Views: 7878
Re: Genitive construction in 2 Corinthians 3:6
I agree with Stirling about the confusing designations of different types of genitives. If there is a doubt about how to understand a genitive, the categories usually just obsucre the matter. I find your main question quite simple to answer, though: I would translate it like this: "He has made ...
- June 3rd, 2018, 9:31 pm
- Forum: Syntax and Grammar
- Topic: Understanding names in Koine Greek
- Replies: 4
- Views: 7625
Re: Understanding names in Koine Greek
No. For most people it would be meaningless to talk about the ending as grammatical, and the idea of a noun without its ending wouldn't make much sense, I think. I don't know where the shortened forms of the names in English come from, but I'm guessing it comes from French, where the case endings of...
- April 17th, 2018, 3:34 pm
- Forum: Church Fathers and Patristic Greek Texts
- Topic: Translation of the Word Telos
- Replies: 6
- Views: 2465
Re: Translation of the Word Telos
You have connected it correctly for the first part of the sentence, but in the last part τέλει goes with τῇ ἑκάστου, so the end of each. The other two instances of "end" in the translation have to be understood from the context. You might be interested that the expression used about "...
- April 17th, 2018, 8:10 am
- Forum: Church Fathers and Patristic Greek Texts
- Topic: Translation of the Word Telos
- Replies: 6
- Views: 2465
Re: Translation of the Word Telos
Look at this, I found by goolging: http://heml.mta.ca/lace/sidebysideview2/237562 In this edition there is a τῷ before καθόλου which makes it a little clearer. You have to understand τέλει with the article, which perhaps isn't too far fetched. For Barry's meaning of the end of the sentence, it would...
- February 11th, 2018, 7:34 am
- Forum: Grammar Questions
- Topic: How to Identify a Permissive/Causative Middle Voice Verb?
- Replies: 13
- Views: 6644
Re: How to Identify a Permissive/Causative Middle Voice Verb?
Interpretation is always subjective since there is no way of being certain where there is ambiguity, and there is always ambiguity. I often find that such technical terms can be useful for analysing how the language itself works, but that they become obstacles when trying to understand an actual tex...
- February 9th, 2018, 6:29 am
- Forum: Church Fathers and Patristic Greek Texts
- Topic: help with prayer text, please
- Replies: 5
- Views: 3712
Re: help with prayer text, please
It's probably supposed to be a crasis of καί + ἄν or καί + ἐν, but then it should have been written κἂν or κἀν, so the last option is most likely I guess, since then you just have an accent instead of a breathing mark, which is a likely error. But it seems very strange there, I think. I googled your...
- January 23rd, 2018, 6:00 pm
- Forum: What does this text mean?
- Topic: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation
- Replies: 11
- Views: 4488
Re: John 1:17 HUGE possible difference in interpretation
Reading it together with 1:16, which says one grace is exchanged for another (most of the translations says grace upon grace, which I can't really see), it seems clear that the law given by Moses is what is exchanged for the grace and truth of Christ. None of them are bad, since they are graces, but...
- January 22nd, 2018, 5:56 pm
- Forum: What does this text mean?
- Topic: David Bentley Hart NT: 1 Peter 1:13
- Replies: 1
- Views: 1476
Re: David Bentley Hart NT: 1 Peter 1:13
There is no explicit future sense in ἐπὶ τὴν φερομένην ὑμῖν χάριν. I would say "put all your hope towards the grace brought by...", but of course we can understand that this is a future event from the context. When translating there is always a choice about how much interpretation to do fo...