ἀπὸ ὁ...

Biblical Greek morphology and syntax, aspect, linguistics, discourse analysis, and related topics
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Chris Servanti
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Joined: September 10th, 2015, 2:30 pm

ἀπὸ ὁ...

Post by Chris Servanti » December 2nd, 2015, 2:01 pm

In Revelation 1:4 it says, "χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη ἀπὸ ὁ ὤν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος..."
Why does it say ἀπὸ ὁ instead of ἀπὸ τοῦ?

Stirling Bartholomew
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Joined: August 9th, 2012, 4:19 pm

Re: ἀπὸ ὁ...

Post by Stirling Bartholomew » December 2nd, 2015, 2:34 pm

Chris Servanti wrote:In Revelation 1:4 it says, "χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη ἀπὸ ὁ ὤν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος..."
Why does it say ἀπὸ ὁ instead of ἀπὸ τοῦ?

You might think of ὁ ὤν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος as a proper name without inflection. This is just one example of the author's "creative" use of the language.
C. Stirling Bartholomew

Louis L Sorenson
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Re: ἀπὸ ὁ...

Post by Louis L Sorenson » December 3rd, 2015, 2:10 am

In Revelation 1:4 it says, "χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη ἀπὸ ὁ ὤν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος..."
Why does it say ἀπὸ ὁ instead of ἀπὸ τοῦ?
Or you could read it as a truncated version of "ἀπὸ (οὗ ἐστιν) ὁ ὤν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος..."

Stephen Hughes
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Re: ἀπὸ ὁ...

Post by Stephen Hughes » December 3rd, 2015, 2:17 am

Louis L Sorenson wrote:
In Revelation 1:4 it says, "χάρις ὑμῖν καὶ εἰρήνη ἀπὸ ὁ ὤν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος..."
Why does it say ἀπὸ ὁ instead of ἀπὸ τοῦ?
Or you could read it as a truncated version of "ἀπὸ (οὗ ἐστιν) ὁ ὤν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος..."
Perhaps
ἀπὸ (αὐτοῦ ὅς ἐστιν) ὁ ὤν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος

Louis, perhaps yours would mean that ἀπὸ (οὗ) and ὁ ὤν καὶ ὁ ἦν καὶ ὁ ἐρχόμενος stand either side of the ἐστιν, with the ἀπὸ as the first word in a new phrase, I think.
Γελᾷ δ' ὁ μωρός, κἄν τι μὴ γέλοιον ᾖ
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)

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