Biblical greek for generic statements?

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Erik Peterson
Posts: 3
Joined: September 25th, 2014, 11:08 pm

Biblical greek for generic statements?

Post by Erik Peterson »

A brief question about generic statements in Biblical Greek-

In colloquial English, we use "one" or "you" primarily for generic statements like "you can lead a horse to water, but you can't make him drink".

In Koine Greek, I have primarily seen the use of "a man" in such statements ("What does it profit a man if he gains the whole world and forfeits his soul? Matt. 16:26") or at least another generic masculine. Are other forms possible in Biblical Greek? I am particularly interested in the question of whether the generic 2nd person can be used in Biblical Greek, or if this is not found at all. Thanks in advance....
Barry Hofstetter

Re: Biblical greek for generic statements?

Post by Barry Hofstetter »

Erik Peterson wrote:A brief question about generic statements in Biblical Greek-

In colloquial English, we use "one" or "you" primarily for generic statements like "you can lead a horse to water, but you can't make him drink".

In Koine Greek, I have primarily seen the use of "a man" in such statements ("What does it profit a man if he gains the whole world and forfeits his soul? Matt. 16:26") or at least another generic masculine. Are other forms possible in Biblical Greek? I am particularly interested in the question of whether the generic 2nd person can be used in Biblical Greek, or if this is not found at all. Thanks in advance....
In general, the second person singular is not so used colloquially the way we do it in English. I do recall Paul occasionally using the second singular where one would expect the plural, but this is usually considered a kind of literary device where the use of the singular is meant to focus on the individual even though it is clear that he is addressing the entire church (but I don't have time to look up the examples at the moment), to create the feeling that he is personally addressing each person who hears or reads the letter.
Stephen Hughes
Posts: 3323
Joined: February 26th, 2013, 7:12 am

Re: Biblical greek for generic statements?

Post by Stephen Hughes »

I am aware of three (1+1+½+½) ways, and I'm sure there are others:
  • Addressing a group in the second person singular
    Matthew 5:39 wrote:ἐγὼ δὲ λέγω ὑμῖν μὴ ἀντιστῆναι τῷ πονηρῷ· ἀλλ’ ὅστις σε ῥαπίσει ἐπὶ τὴν δεξιὰν σιαγόνα, στρέψον αὐτῷ καὶ τὴν ἄλλην·
  • Using the indefinte τις
    John 3:5 wrote:Ἀπεκρίθη Ἰησοῦς, Ἀμὴν ἀμὴν λέγω σοι, ἐὰν μή τις γεννηθῇ ἐξ ὕδατος καὶ πνεύματος, οὐ δύναται εἰσελθεῖν εἰς τὴν βασιλείαν τοῦ θεοῦ.
  • πᾶς with a participle
    Luke 11:10 wrote:Πᾶς γὰρ ὁ αἰτῶν λαμβάνει· καὶ ὁ ζητῶν εὑρίσκει· καὶ τῷ κρούοντι ἀνοιγήσεται
  • πᾶς with a finite verb
    Luke 12:8 wrote:Πᾶς ὃς ἂν ὁμολογήσῃ ἐν ἐμοὶ ἔμπροσθεν τῶν ἀνθρώπων, καὶ ὁ υἱὸς τοῦ ἀνθρώπου ὁμολογήσει ἐν αὐτῷ ἔμπροσθεν τῶν ἀγγέλων τοῦ θεοῦ·
Γελᾷ δ' ὁ μωρός, κἄν τι μὴ γέλοιον ᾖ
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)
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