I'm struggling with the syntactical usage of ἐλθόντας in this passage. it is clear that "τοῦ ... συλλαβέσθαι" is an articular infinitive, most likely, of purpose ("... in order that they come and help them") but the role of ἐλθόντας, syntactically, is uncertain to me.καὶ κατένευσαν τοῖς μετόχοις ἐν τῷ ἑτέρῳ πλοίῳ τοῦ ἐλθόντας συλλαβέσθαι αὐτοῖς· καὶ ἦλθον καὶ ἔπλησαν ἀμφότερα τὰ πλοῖα ὥστε βυθίζεσθαι αὐτά.
My Grammatical Analysis of the Greek New Testament has a note about this saying:
I would normally think of a subject of an infinitive being some kind of noun or pronoun or something similar in the accusative case as the subject of the infinitive. I think this seems so strange to me because this participle isn't substantival somehow, as far as I can tell. It seems to still be a verbal participle, so I'm struggling with how a verbal participle can function as a subject of an infinitive.acc. as subject of inf.
Can anyone else think of a place where a verbal participle is used in the accusative as the subject of an infinitive?
Is there something I'm missing or misunderstanding here?
Any help with this would be much appreciated.