I don't think it's very helpful to issue an apodictic pronouncement of this sort without any sort of explanation, while the pedagogy in place is still teaching the doctrine that middle-passive forms may carry either a middle or a passive meaning and θη forms ordinarily carry a passive meaning. It is really not easy to talk about the Greek verbal "voice" system without oversimplifying matters. Mike will have to speak for himself about what he means, but I would put it this way: Greek inherited an Indo-European middle voice that can express a passive meaning under the right conditions, and ancient Greek further developed a secondary middle-voice form in -θη- from the athematic aorists in -η- which often are associated with middle-voice present-tense forms. Like the μαι/σαι/ται/μην/σο/το forms, the -θη- forms also can and very often do express a passive meaning under the right conditions.MAubrey wrote:Greek doesn't have a passive voice.Stephen Hughes wrote:Given this limited data set that you want to draw a parallel from, perhaps we could also consider that it is more likely to be used with a verb in the passive voice than it is in the active voice.
I might add that I would consider both μεθύσκεσθε and πληροῦσθε middle imperatives: they are exhortations to those addressed to engage in a mind-altering process and I think both imperatives assume that those addressed may consent and take action to bring about the mind-altering process.