Does it? BDF §445 begins:Appropriately, BDF §445 calls οὐδέ a ‘correlative’ and a ‘connective’ indicating ‘correlation’ of members and contrasts its use with ‘independent continuation’.
which is not clear to me. The fact that 'Negative correlatives' is in bold, apparently as the heading for the section, might suggest that οὐδέ is being classed as a correlative, contrary I think to the usual form of classification of conjunctions. Here is Blass Debrunner, §77.10:445. Negative correlatives: οὔτε... οὔτε... (μήτε... μήτε); the connective after a negative clause is οὐδέ (μηδέ), after a positive καὶ οὐ (καὶ μή). All of this remains the same as in classical.
which I think makes it clear that two classes are in view, and that οὐδέ is being classed as a connective rather than a correlative. So far as I can see from §77.5-6, both these are classed within copulative conjuctions, which in turn come under coordinating conjunctions. Presumably, BDF 445 is following this scheme, but the terseness of style has made it less apparent.10. The use of correlative negative clauseswith οὔτε... οὔτε or μήτε... μήτε respectively, and of οὐδέ or μηδέ respectively as a connecting particle after negative sentences (and of καὶ οὐ, καὶ μὴ after positive sentences) remains the same as in classical Greek.
Payne's claim that οὐδέ indicates correlation of members rather than an independent continuation seems to come from the following in BDF 445:
I think I can see Payne's logic here. The implication of the above might be that καὶ οὐ after positive clauses would indicate correlation, and καὶ οὐ after positive clauses is comparable to οὐδέ after negative clauses, so correlation would be expected here too.(4) Καὶ οὐ after negative clauses does not indicate correlation but an independent continuation (Buttmann 316), e.g. Mt 15:32
Matthew 15:32b:
καὶ οὐκ ἔχουσιν τί φάγωσιν· καὶ ἀπολῦσαι αὐτοὺς νήστεις οὐ θέλω, μήποτε ἐκλυθῶσιν ἐν τῇ ὁδῷ.
where one would hardly describe the clauses as correlated, especially given the change of subject, and the semi-colon seems appropriate.
I am wondering if there may be three degrees of correlation in view: highly correlated pairs (etc) rendered by οὔτε... οὔτε κ.τ.λ., sentences with a degree of correlation (οὐ .. οὐδέ κ.τ.λ.), and sentences with hardly any correlation, such as Matthew 15:32 above.
Andrew