Looking at his example:καὶ οὐ after negative clauses does not indicate correlation but an independent continuation (Buttmann 316), e.g. Mt. 15:32
Ὁ δὲ Ἰησοῦς προσκαλεσάμενος τοὺς μαθητὰς αὐτοῦ εἶπεν· Σπλαγχνίζομαι ἐπὶ τὸν ὄχλον, ὅτι ἤδη ἡμέραι τρεῖς προσμένουσίν μοι καὶ οὐκ ἔχουσιν τί φάγωσιν· καὶ ἀπολῦσαι αὐτοὺς νήστεις οὐ θέλω, μήποτε ἐκλυθῶσιν ἐν τῇ ὁδῷ.
it strikes me that the first clause consists of a positive primary clause - Σπλαγχνίζομαι ἐπὶ τὸν ὄχλον - followed by a subordinate clause which ends with a negative sub-clause - ὅτι.. οὐκ ἔχουσιν τί φάγωσιν. So it's not obvious to me whether καὶ.. οὐ is best seen as following a negative clause or a positive one. First of all, I don't know whether it matters more that the Σπλαγχνίζομαι clause is primary, or that the οὐκ ἔχουσιν clause is the one immediately preceding. Second, from a practical point of view, it seems natural to refer back to the clause with the same subject, which is the positive Σπλαγχνίζομαι one. Any thoughts?
Andrew