Grammars often say or imply that a participle must have a finite main verb, but I see quite a few examples (391 in the GNT) where it's not clear to me that this is the case. I've started thinking in a direction that may be unconventional or wrong, so I'm posting this thread to share some query results and make sure that I'm interpreting things correctly. If not, I'd rather not waste time and effort running in the wrong direction.Luke 2:36 wrote:Καὶ ἦν Ἅννα προφῆτις, θυγάτηρ Φανουήλ, ἐκ φυλῆς Ἀσήρ· αὕτη προβεβηκυῖα ἐν ἡμέραις πολλαῖς, Ζήσασα μετὰ ἀνδρὸς ἔτη ἑπτὰ ἀπὸ τῆς παρθενίας αὐτῆς,
Let's stick with ζάω for a few examples:
2 Tim 4:1 wrote:Διαμαρτύρομαι ἐνώπιον τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ Χριστοῦ Ἰησοῦ, τοῦ μέλλοντος κρίνειν ζῶντας καὶ νεκρούς, καὶ τὴν ἐπιφάνειαν αὐτοῦ καὶ τὴν βασιλείαν αὐτοῦ·
In these verses, the main verb seems to be the infinitive κρίνειν / κρῖναι, and ζῶντας refers to those who are living at the time of judgement.1 Peter 4:5 wrote: οἳ ἀποδώσουσιν λόγον τῷ ἑτοίμως ἔχοντι κρῖναι ζῶντας καὶ νεκρούς.
There are 17 instances of non-finite forms of ὁράω as the main verb, the participle seems to be relative to the time of seeing. For instance:
The present tense περιπατοῦντα should be interpreted with respect to ἰδόντες - they saw Jesus walking around.Matthew 14:26 wrote:ἰδόντες δὲ αὐτὸν ἐπὶ τῆς θαλάσσης περιπατοῦντα
The aorist γενόμενα should be interpreted with respect to ἰδόντες - they saw what had happened.Matthew 18:31 wrote:ἰδόντες οὖν οἱ σύνδουλοι αὐτοῦ τὰ γενόμενα
I have 391 results along these lines, some aren't actually relevant, and I think I'm missing some examples that I can find by improving my query, but let's start here before I put more work into it. Am I interpreting these examples correctly?