This is my first question here, so I hope that I've found the right sub-section.
When writing about a verb, is it still standard to refer to it using the infinitive form, or is that "old"? I can't find any guidance in Chicago, or SBL, or anywhere else: is this kind of rule laid out anywhere?
Thanks
Reference to Greek verbs
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Re: Reference to Greek verbs
Welcome to B-Greek!
I don't have the SBL Manual of Style, and I don't know what guidelines publishers use. Here on B-Greek, there's a mix of people who prefer the form found in BDAG and those who prefer the infinitive.
Oh, a little housekeeping: we have a user name policy here - see http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/vie ... ?f=38&t=90. If you follow the instructions there, we can change your name to comply with policy.
I don't have the SBL Manual of Style, and I don't know what guidelines publishers use. Here on B-Greek, there's a mix of people who prefer the form found in BDAG and those who prefer the infinitive.
Oh, a little housekeeping: we have a user name policy here - see http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/vie ... ?f=38&t=90. If you follow the instructions there, we can change your name to comply with policy.
ἐξίσταντο δὲ πάντες καὶ διηποροῦντο, ἄλλος πρὸς ἄλλον λέγοντες, τί θέλει τοῦτο εἶναι;
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/
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Re: Reference to Greek verbs
I don't think the SBL manual style prescribes a form. The traditional form since the Renaissance is to use the first person singular, and that remains popular in English-language scholarship, but I prefer and use the infinitive, along with many Germans (in my experience). I don't think anyone would seriously object if you use the infinitive.
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
Melbourne, Australia