I made the following query in a reply to a reply to an original post, but it seems to have gotten lost in the chain of replies. So I'll try posting it as a new topic.
My question is about John 16.26b: “καὶ οὐ λέγω ὑμῖν ὅτι ἐγὼ ἐρωτήσω τὸν πατέρα περὶ ὑμῶν·”
James Stinti confirmed my suspicion that "ἐγὼ" is emphatic, but where does that take us as far as translating this phrase goes?
Some commentators say that the sense is something like: “it goes without saying that I’ll pray the father for you.” However, placing a special emphasis on “ἐγὼ” doesn’t seem to me to favor that interpretation.
Other commentators feel that Jesus is saying that there will be no need for him to intercede for the disciples. As they ask in his name (in communion with his spirit) they can address the Father directly, and the Father will listen and answer because “He himself loves them” (v.27). In this case, the translation might go something like this: “and you won’t need me to pray the Father for you” or even “and I won’t be praying the Father for you”.
Are both of these interpretations possible? Is one preferable? Are there other possibilities?
Thanks for any help,
Thomas
John 16.26b: “καὶ οὐ λέγω ὑμῖν ὅτι ἐγὼ ἐρωτήσω τὸν πατέρα περὶ ὑμῶν·”
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This is a beginner's forum - see the Koine Greek forum for more advanced discussion of Greek texts. Please quote the Greek text you are discussing directly in your post if it is reasonably short - do not ask people to look it up.
When answering questions in this forum, keep it simple, and aim your responses to the level of the person asking the question.
Re: John 16.26b: “καὶ οὐ λέγω ὑμῖν ὅτι ἐγὼ ἐρωτήσω τὸν πατέρα περὶ ὑμῶν·”
Hi Thomas,
Yes, you're right that ἐγώ is emphatic here, and that shapes the meaning. Rather than supporting the idea “of course I’ll ask the Father for you”, the emphasis on ἐγώ argues against that interpretation. Jesus seems to be saying: “I’m not saying that I will ask the Father on your behalf.” That is, you won’t need me to.
This fits perfectly with verse 27—“for the Father himself loves you”. The point is that the disciples now have direct access to the Father through their relationship with Jesus.
So while both interpretations are grammatically possible, the second one—that Jesus is saying they won’t need him to intercede—is more consistent with the emphasis and the context.
Yes, you're right that ἐγώ is emphatic here, and that shapes the meaning. Rather than supporting the idea “of course I’ll ask the Father for you”, the emphasis on ἐγώ argues against that interpretation. Jesus seems to be saying: “I’m not saying that I will ask the Father on your behalf.” That is, you won’t need me to.
This fits perfectly with verse 27—“for the Father himself loves you”. The point is that the disciples now have direct access to the Father through their relationship with Jesus.
So while both interpretations are grammatically possible, the second one—that Jesus is saying they won’t need him to intercede—is more consistent with the emphasis and the context.