John 1:29

How do I work out the meaning of a Greek text? How can I best understand the forms and vocabulary in this particular text?
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Thomas Sandberg
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John 1:29

Post by Thomas Sandberg » January 18th, 2017, 12:11 pm

Τῇ ἐπαύριον βλέπει ὁ Ἰωάννης τὸν Ἰησοῦν ἐρχόμενον πρὸς αὐτόν, καὶ λέγει· Ἴδε ὁ ἀμνὸς τοῦ Θεοῦ ὁ αἴρων τὴν ἁμαρτίαν τοῦ κόσμου. (PT 1904)

Regarding βλέπει (PAI-3S) and λέγει (PAI-3S). In the RSV and NKJV these are translated as the English past tense "saw" and "said;" whereas the KJV translates them (correctly?) as "seeth" (English: Simple PI-3S of "see") and "saith" (English: Simple PI-3S of "say"). I haven't found any grammar rule for Greek or English as to why. Any help?
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<<μὴ μέταιρε ὅρια αἰώνια, ἃ ἔθεντο οἱ πατέρες σου.>>
-Παροιμίαι ΚΒʹ:28

Robert Emil Berge
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Joined: August 24th, 2016, 1:34 pm

Re: John 1:29

Post by Robert Emil Berge » January 18th, 2017, 6:27 pm

The use of the historical present is very common in Greek. It sometimes works in English as well, but is often better translated into the past tense.
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Robert Emil Berge
Posts: 63
Joined: August 24th, 2016, 1:34 pm

Re: John 1:29

Post by Robert Emil Berge » January 18th, 2017, 6:36 pm

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Thomas Sandberg
Posts: 11
Joined: December 8th, 2016, 12:49 pm
Location: Toronto, Ontario & Winnipeg/Niverville, Manitoba, Canada
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Re: John 1:29

Post by Thomas Sandberg » February 11th, 2017, 9:02 pm

Εὐχαριστῶ.
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<<μὴ μέταιρε ὅρια αἰώνια, ἃ ἔθεντο οἱ πατέρες σου.>>
-Παροιμίαι ΚΒʹ:28

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