PhillipLebsack wrote: ↑January 24th, 2018, 10:37 am
So, the Law was given through Moses
by someone - God.
But, what's the point?
You are asking whether John views the Law as good or not, I think the closest thing to an answer in this verse is that the law was given *through* Moses, implying *by* God. And I think that is best read in the context of the entire section 1.9-1.18 (or perhaps 1.10-1.18), which tells us where Jesus fits in with respect to creation, God's people, John, Moses, and the Law. Read that whole section several times and see what the context tells you.
The focus is on Jesus, not the Law, but it does imply that God gave the law through Moses. So he does imply that the Law is God-given, but his main intent is to tell you that Jesus goes beyond the law by contrasting the two.
ἐξίσταντο δὲ πάντες καὶ διηποροῦντο, ἄλλος πρὸς ἄλλον λέγοντες, τί θέλει τοῦτο εἶναι;
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/