Syntax of Matthew 19:9

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jjThomas
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Joined: July 19th, 2020, 4:07 am

Syntax of Matthew 19:9

Post by jjThomas » July 19th, 2020, 4:26 am

Can Matthew 19:9 be read, consistent with the record of Ancient Greek, "whoever would loose from the wife of his not upon fornication and [whoever] would marry another commits adultery"?
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Barry Hofstetter
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Re: Syntax of Matthew 19:9

Post by Barry Hofstetter » July 19th, 2020, 8:46 am

Just by way of reminder, we discuss the Greek on B-Greek, and don't normally discuss translations, except in so far as a translation may illustrate a particular understanding of the Greek. We also generally cite the Greek text if possible:

λέγω δὲ ὑμῖν ὅτι ὃς ἂν ἀπολύσῃ τὴν γυναῖκα αὐτοῦ μὴ ἐπὶ πορνείᾳ καὶ γαμήσῃ ἄλλην μοιχᾶται.

My answer, however, is no, since the first part of your translation makes little sense in English, and translations which make little or no sense are never right. Perhaps the question you should be asking is how the preposition ἐπί is being used in this context, and also the verb ἀπολύω.
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N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Instructor of Latin
Jack M. Barrack Hebrew Academy
καὶ σὺ τὸ σὸν ποιήσεις κἀγὼ τὸ ἐμόν. ἆρον τὸ σὸν καὶ ὕπαγε.

jjThomas
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Joined: July 19th, 2020, 4:07 am

Re: Syntax of Matthew 19:9

Post by jjThomas » July 23rd, 2020, 10:30 am

I would like to try to clarify what (at least for me) rather uncertain matter of syntax the hypothesised translation of Matt 19:9 raises. Were speakers uniformly required, in speaking felicitous (generally acceptable) Ancient Greek, and more specifically Koine, to set out the pronoun ὃς in each clause of a compound sentence of the form,

(1) "Whoever does X, and whoever does Y, is Z"?

Does Ancient Greek allow for ambiguity, in distinguishing (1) from

(2) "Whoever does X and does Y is Z"?
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Jonathan Robie
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Re: Syntax of Matthew 19:9

Post by Jonathan Robie » July 23rd, 2020, 1:02 pm

jjThomas wrote:
July 23rd, 2020, 10:30 am
I would like to try to clarify what (at least for me) rather uncertain matter of syntax the hypothesised translation of Matt 19:9 raises. Were speakers uniformly required, in speaking felicitous (generally acceptable) Ancient Greek, and more specifically Koine, to set out the pronoun ὃς in each clause of a compound sentence of the form,

(1) "Whoever does X, and whoever does Y, is Z"?

Does Ancient Greek allow for ambiguity, in distinguishing (1) from

(2) "Whoever does X and does Y is Z"?
Did you you have a question about Greek syntax? Your translation seems to entirely ignore the syntax of the sentence, and does not attempt to build equivalent syntax in English. It looks more like an interlinear than an actual translation.

Could you please quote the Greek phrases you are particularly interested in and ask questions about syntax using syntactic terms? I cannot tell, from your post, whether you know anything about Greek or language or not. We need to start from a more informed question.
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ἐξίσταντο δὲ πάντες καὶ διηποροῦντο, ἄλλος πρὸς ἄλλον λέγοντες, τί θέλει τοῦτο εἶναι;
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/

Stephen Carlson
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Re: Syntax of Matthew 19:9

Post by Stephen Carlson » July 23rd, 2020, 5:01 pm

I think he just wants to know if the subjects of the two subjunctives are co-referential.
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Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia

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