In Acts 5:3, what is the function of σε?
Posted: May 12th, 2020, 2:29 pm
mGNT Acts 5:3 εἶπεν δὲ ὁ Πέτρος Ἁνανία διὰ τί ἐπλήρωσεν ὁ Σατανᾶς τὴν καρδίαν σου ψεύσασθαί σε τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον καὶ νοσφίσασθαι ἀπὸ τῆς τιμῆς τοῦ χωρίου
ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/
https://www.ibiblio.org:443/bgreek/forum/
https://www.ibiblio.org:443/bgreek/forum/viewtopic.php?f=48&t=5155
mGNT Acts 5:3 εἶπεν δὲ ὁ Πέτρος Ἁνανία διὰ τί ἐπλήρωσεν ὁ Σατανᾶς τὴν καρδίαν σου ψεύσασθαί σε τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον καὶ νοσφίσασθαι ἀπὸ τῆς τιμῆς τοῦ χωρίου
σε is the accusative subject of the infinitive ψεύσασθαί.ψεύσασθαί σε τὸ πνεῦμα τὸ ἅγιον
Normally, but not always.Infinitive verbs always take the accusative case for their subjects.
As Michael said, not always. That is one function of the accusative in Greek. You also have the accusative as the object of prepositions, you have the accusative of duration and various other adverbial uses. Here, it's important to remember that the subject of an infinitive regularly goes into the accusative case (unless it is the same as the subject of the main verb, then it goes into the nominative).
Thank you Barry.Barry Hofstetter wrote: ↑May 13th, 2020, 10:08 amAs Michael said, not always. That is one function of the accusative in Greek. You also have the accusative as the object of prepositions, you have the accusative of duration and various other adverbial uses. Here, it's important to remember that the subject of an infinitive regularly goes into the accusative case (unless it is the same as the subject of the main verb, then it goes into the nominative).
If, as I might instinctively do, we recoil at an accusative without a nominative subject somewhere, can we imagine a similar situation similar to MAubrey's example but without "I"? Where there is no provided nominative, are we inexorably driven we supply one from context?I wanted her to eat the apple.
Okay, but in koine as in English, this would not be a valid sentence:Barry Hofstetter wrote: ↑May 13th, 2020, 11:29 am No, the subject of the main verb in the English example provide by Michael is "I" and the subject of the infinitive is "her." If the subject were the same it would be something like "I wanted to eat an apple." As in English, so in Greek, if the subjects are the same the subject of the infinitive is regularly omitted, but if expressed, goes into the nominative (or if there is a predicate noun or adjective referring to the subject).
That's not true. Here's an example from John 3:7, it can stand alone as a complete sentence.Bill Ross wrote: ↑May 13th, 2020, 11:44 amOkay, but in koine as in English, this would not be a valid sentence:Barry Hofstetter wrote: ↑May 13th, 2020, 11:29 am No, the subject of the main verb in the English example provide by Michael is "I" and the subject of the infinitive is "her." If the subject were the same it would be something like "I wanted to eat an apple." As in English, so in Greek, if the subjects are the same the subject of the infinitive is regularly omitted, but if expressed, goes into the nominative (or if there is a predicate noun or adjective referring to the subject).
Her to eat the apple.
Right? An accusative subject without a Prior nominative, implied or explicit is an error, correct?