timothy_p_mcmahon wrote:Can ος be used without an antecedent, in the sense of "he who..." or "the one who..."?
I know that's usually done in Greek with a participle, but I've seen it done with οστις, and I'm wondering if the same is true with ος.
Yes, and I think it is perfectly valid to take it to be without an antecedent in 1 Tim 3:16 as Barry has translated it, but it is still in apposition to "το της ευσεβειας μυστηριον". "ος" is more commonly used with "[ε]αν" (with the subjunctive) to mean "whoever ...", but sometimes it is used alone (with the indicative) to mean essentially an indefinite relative pronoun "he/she/they/one who" / "that which" such as in the following examples:
[Mark 9:40] ος γαρ ουκ εστιν καθ ημων υπερ ημων εστιν
"for he who is not against us is for us."
[Rom 2:23] ος εν νομω καυχασαι δια της παραβασεως του νομου τον θεον ατιμαζεις
"one who boasts in the law, do you through the transgression dishonour the law of God?"
[Rom 8:32] ος γε του ιδιου υιου ουκ εφεισατο αλλα υπερ ημων παντων παρεδωκεν αυτον πως ουχι και συν αυτω τα παντα ημιν χαρισεται
"he indeed who did not spare his own son but delivered him up for us all, how will he not also grant with him all things to us?"
[Rom 14:2] ος μεν πιστευει φαγειν παντα ο δε ασθενων λαχανα εσθιει
"there is one indeed who has faith to eat all things, but the one who is weak eats vegetables."