Galatians 4:18-20
καλὸν δὲ ζηλοῦσθαι ἐν καλῷ πάντοτε, καὶ μὴ μόνον ἐν τῷ παρεῖναί με πρὸς ὑμᾶς, τέκνα μου, οὓς πάλιν ὠδίνω μέχρις οὗ μορφωθῇ Χριστὸς ἐν ὑμῖν· ἤθελον δὲ παρεῖναι πρὸς ὑμᾶς ἄρτι, καὶ ἀλλάξαι τὴν φωνήν μου, ὅτι ἀποροῦμαι ἐν ὑμῖν.
Wallace lists this in his paper here as an instance of constructio ad sensum. Would you agree with this? Is it not more sensible that οὕς here is referring to ὑμᾶς rather than τέκνα μου?
Thanks for your feedback.
Galatians 4:19 - Constructio ad sensum?
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Galatians 4:19 - Constructio ad sensum?
Jason A. Hare
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Re: Galatians 4:19 - Constructio ad sensum?
I would agree with you Jason. A constructio ad sensum is not necessary here.
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
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Re: Galatians 4:19 - Constructio ad sensum?
Thanks, Stephen. Hoping more will respond. Appreciate the feedback.Stephen Carlson wrote:I would agree with you Jason. A constructio ad sensum is not necessary here.
Jason A. Hare
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Re: Galatians 4:19 - Constructio ad sensum?
Here is what Wallace says about it:
2 John 1 is covered by Smyth §1055, where it says that "[w]hen the persons are of different gender, the masculine prevails." Would this be subsumed under ad sensum?
Mark 5:41 is certainly an instance, with the switch from τὸ παιδίον to αὐτῆς.
Mark 9:24-26 also offers an true example.
Does anyone else have anything to offer regarding the original verse that he referenced (Galatians 4:19)?
I also notice that in footnote 3 he gives some other examples:In Gal 4:19, Paul speaks of "my children, whom" (τέκνα μου οὕς), using the masculine relative pronoun to refer to the "children."
With Philemon 10, I would wonder if this isn't an issue of attraction to Ὀνήσιμον.See also, regarding τέκνον, Phlm 10 (παρακαλῶ σε περὶ τοῦ ἐμοῦ τέκνου, ὃν ἐγέννησα); 2 John 1 (τοῖς τέκνοις αὐτῆς, οὕς [in which the antecedent of the masculine οὕς is both a feminine singular and a neuter plural]). The word παιδίον is similar: cf. Mark 5:41 (κτρατήσας τῆς χειρὸς τοῦ παιδίου λέγει αὐτῇ), in which the feminine pronoun is bracketed by παιδίον and τὸ κοράσιον; Mark 9:24-26 (παιδίου... αὐτόν... νεκρός).
2 John 1 is covered by Smyth §1055, where it says that "[w]hen the persons are of different gender, the masculine prevails." Would this be subsumed under ad sensum?
Mark 5:41 is certainly an instance, with the switch from τὸ παιδίον to αὐτῆς.
Mark 9:24-26 also offers an true example.
Does anyone else have anything to offer regarding the original verse that he referenced (Galatians 4:19)?
Jason A. Hare
The Hebrew Café
Tel Aviv, Israel
The Hebrew Café
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Re: Galatians 4:19 - Constructio ad sensum?
I think your proposal that οὕς refers to ὑμᾶς is plausible, especially with τέκνα being a vocative, but I wonder if the Wortfeld relationship of ὠδίνω with τέκνα makes τέκνα the likelier antecedent.
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Re: Galatians 4:19 - Constructio ad sensum?
Could you explain what a Wortfeld relationship is?timothy_p_mcmahon wrote:I think your proposal that οὕς refers to ὑμᾶς is plausible, especially with τέκνα being a vocative, but I wonder if the Wortfeld relationship of ὠδίνω with τέκνα makes τέκνα the likelier antecedent.
Jason A. Hare
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Re: Galatians 4:19 - Constructio ad sensum?
Wortfeld = Semantic fieldJason Hare wrote:Could you explain what a Wortfeld relationship is?
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
Melbourne, Australia