So, would this be a correct way to view ὤφθη in verses 1 and 3? The aorist indicative indicates past time relative to the time of speaking, but it does not tell us when in the past it occurred. Nor does it necessarily indicate historical (objective) time, but here could just as well refer to past time within the context of John's vision.
Grammar questions which are not related to any specific text.
That is how I understand it. As before, though, I hope someone will verify that for you. Sorry, I had so much difficulty explaining what I meant to say.
Ἀσπάζομαι μὲν καὶ φιλῶ, πείσομαι δὲ μᾶλλον τῷ θεῷ ἢ ὑμῖν.-Ἀπολογία Σωκράτους 29δ