A question about gender

Grammar questions which are not related to any specific text.
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Mike Burke
Posts: 72
Joined: February 7th, 2014, 8:07 am

A question about gender

Post by Mike Burke » September 16th, 2014, 1:40 am

Does the gender of a verb have to agree with the gender of the subject?

For example, is δελεάζοντες masculine in 2 Peter 2:14 because ψευδοδιδάσκαλοι (in 2 Peter 2:1) is masculine?
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Barry Hofstetter
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Joined: May 6th, 2011, 1:48 pm

Re: A question about gender

Post by Barry Hofstetter » September 18th, 2014, 2:31 pm

Mike Burke wrote:Does the gender of a verb have to agree with the gender of the subject?

For example, is δελεάζοντες masculine in 2 Peter 2:14 because ψευδοδιδάσκαλοι (in 2 Peter 2:1) is masculine?
Finite verbs (verbs which have person and number) are not marked for gender in Greek. δελεάζοντες, however, is a participle, and so is marked for case, number and gender because participles are verbal adjectives. It is masculine nominative plural and does refer to ψευδοδιδάσκαλοι, as do all the various nominative plurals throughout this section.
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N.E. Barry Hofstetter
Instructor of Latin
Jack M. Barrack Hebrew Academy
καὶ σὺ τὸ σὸν ποιήσεις κἀγὼ τὸ ἐμόν. ἆρον τὸ σὸν καὶ ὕπαγε.

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