R. Perkins wrote: ↑June 1st, 2018, 2:49 am
λέγουσιν αὐτῷ· τί οὖν Μωϋσῆς ἐνετείλατο δοῦναι βιβλίον
ἀποστασίου καὶ ἀπολῦσαι o [αὐτήν]
I recently heard someone teaching that Matthew 19.7 affirms a delineation between ἀποστασίου and ἀπολῦσαι. This pastor is teaching (& converting) other pastors the notion that Jesus is addressing those who have "put away" their wives, but not given them a bill of divorce (hence allowing for remarriage for virtually any cause). That is, he is making a strong distinction between ἀποστασίου and ἀπολῦσαι in Mt. 19.7-9.
I don't yet understand this line of argument. There is a distinction between the two, as you can see in Matthew 5:31-32. Here's the Mosaic teaching:
Matthew 5:31 wrote:Ἐρρέθη δέ· Ὃς ἂν ἀπολύσῃ τὴν γυναῖκα αὐτοῦ, δότω αὐτῇ ἀποστάσιον.
So clearly it would be possible to do one without doing the other or Moses would not have commanded a man to give an apostasion to his wife if he divorces her.
Here's what Jesus said in the next verse:
Matthew 5:31 wrote:ἐγὼ δὲ λέγω ὑμῖν ὅτι πᾶς ὁ ἀπολύων τὴν γυναῖκα αὐτοῦ παρεκτὸς λόγου πορνείας ποιεῖ αὐτὴν μοιχευθῆναι, καὶ ὃς ἐὰν ἀπολελυμένην γαμήσῃ μοιχᾶται.
Jesus is not repeating what Moses said, reminding a man to give his wife an apostasion if he divorces her, he is telling him not to divorce her at all παρεκτὸς λόγου πορνείας. I suppose your pastor may be wondering what a man should do if he divorces his wife in a case of adultery - should he give her a divorce certificate or not? Jesus doesn't say, certainly not in this verse.
Two quick questions:
(1) Can it be said that the noun and verb connected by καὶ constitutes a hendiadys, essentially describing the same event?
I don't think so.
(2) Is there a systematic methodology to identifying a hendiadys, or is each hendiadys debatable?
Certainly many are debatable. I don't think this one is.
ἐξίσταντο δὲ πάντες καὶ διηποροῦντο, ἄλλος πρὸς ἄλλον λέγοντες, τί θέλει τοῦτο εἶναι;
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/