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Re: Galatians 1:1-5

Posted: November 12th, 2013, 4:20 pm
by Justin Cofer
Question: why did Paul say ὅπως ἐξέληται ἡμᾶς? Instead of using the more common ἱνα he uses ὅπως. And instead of using σῴζω, ῥύομαι, ἐλευθεροώ, or (ἐξ)αγοράζω he uses the rarer ἐξαιρέομαι?

Re: Galatians 1:1-5

Posted: November 12th, 2013, 4:39 pm
by Stephen Carlson
Justin Cofer wrote:Question: why did Paul say ὅπως ἐξέληται ἡμᾶς? Instead of using the more common ἱνα he uses ὅπως. And instead of using σῴζω, ῥύομαι, ἐλευθεροώ, or (ἐξ)αγοράζω he uses the rarer ἐξαιρέομαι?
There are some suggestions in the literature that Paul is alluding / adapting a traditional formulation.

Re: Galatians 1:1-5

Posted: November 12th, 2013, 5:00 pm
by Justin Cofer
Stephen Carlson wrote:
Justin Cofer wrote:Question: why did Paul say ὅπως ἐξέληται ἡμᾶς? Instead of using the more common ἱνα he uses ὅπως. And instead of using σῴζω, ῥύομαι, ἐλευθεροώ, or (ἐξ)αγοράζω he uses the rarer ἐξαιρέομαι?
There are some suggestions in the literature that Paul is alluding / adapting a traditional formulation.
Which makes sense in this context. By reiterating it to them with this vocabulary, he's saying this is the traditional εὐαγγέλιον. I know this post only covers 1-5 but in 6 he's going to charge them with forsaking the traditional εὐαγγέλιον τοῦ Χριστοῦ.