S Walch wrote:τῇ ἐκκλησίᾳ τοῦ θεοῦ τῇ οὔσῃ ἐν Κορίνθῳ, ἡγιασμένοις ἐν Χριστῷ Ἰησοῦ, κλητοῖς ἁγίοις, σὺν πᾶσιν τοῖς ἐπικαλουμένοις τὸ ὄνομα τοῦ κυρίου ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐν παντὶ τόπῳ, αὐτῶν καὶ ἡμῶν
Is there anything that can determine whether ἐπικαλουμένοις is to be considered "who are called by" over and above "who call upon"? I recently began reading a commentary by Kenneth E. Bailey, and he argues for the former rather than the latter. He appeals to BADG's discussion of the passive with regards to ἐπικαλέω, despite the fact that BADG itself places 1 Cor 1:2 as under the latter meaning.
BDAG 373 ἐπικαλέω 2 wrote:. . . The pass. is used w. ὄνομα, as in the OT, in ἐπικαλεῖται τὸ ὄνομά τινος ἐπί τινα someone's name is called over someone to designate the latter as the property of the former (KGalling, TLZ 81, '56, 65-70; of God's name 2 Km 6:2; 3 Km 8:43; Jer 7:30; 14:9 and oft.) Ac 15:17 (Am 9:12, also 2 Ch 7:14). . . .
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