John 10:41 «πάντα δὲ ὅσα εἶπεν Ἰωάννης περὶ τούτου ἀληθῆ ἦν»
Posted: June 17th, 2012, 11:29 pm
There is a few other examples I noticed in the Gospel according to John, but I don't recall where they are exactly.
In John 10;41, we have the plural subject πάντα ("all things") with the singular verb ἦν and the singular predicate adjective ἀληθῆ. What is the reason for there not being a plural verb and plural predicate adjective to correspond with the plural subject πάντα? I'd assume the subject is taken as a collective singular. Any alternative?
In John 10;41, we have the plural subject πάντα ("all things") with the singular verb ἦν and the singular predicate adjective ἀληθῆ. What is the reason for there not being a plural verb and plural predicate adjective to correspond with the plural subject πάντα? I'd assume the subject is taken as a collective singular. Any alternative?