We are reading 1John over on textkit. I assume that M. Culy cannot be wrong. Never the less I had a nagging doubt about his comment concerning αὐτὸς that it cannot be the subject of the infinitive because it is in the nominative case. So following up on my nagging doubt I tracked it down in ATR p1037, Moulton Proleg, p. 212, Guy Cooper, §55.2.1, §55.5.1.E.
Moulton states:
My question: αὐτὸς in 1Jn 2:6 is coreferential with the subject ὀφείλει and "resumptive" after an adverbial καθὼς ἐκεῖνος περιεπάτησεν (Cooper §55.5.1.E) but what about the "subject" of the infinitive? I am wondering if Culy is half-right but the case of αὐτὸς is not the issue.In classical Greek, as any fifth-form boy forgets at his peril, the nominative is used regularly instead of the accusative as subject to the infinitive when the subject of the main verb is the same.