Gal. 4:13 as δι’ ἀσθένειαν τῆς σαρκὸς [ὑμῶν] εὐηγγ.

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Gregory Hartzler-Miller
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Joined: May 23rd, 2015, 10:09 pm

Gal. 4:13 as δι’ ἀσθένειαν τῆς σαρκὸς [ὑμῶν] εὐηγγ.

Post by Gregory Hartzler-Miller »

Considering reading …δι’ ἀσθένειαν τῆς σαρκὸς εὐηγγελισάμην…, (Gal. 4:13) as δι’ ἀσθένειαν τῆς σαρκὸς [ὑμῶν] εὐηγγελισάμην… This, in harmony with Rom. 6:19a: ἀνθρώπινον λέγω διὰ τὴν ἀσθένειαν τῆς σαρκὸς ὑμῶν.

Meyer objects, “Utterly mistaken: because Paul must necessarily have added a modal definition to εὐηγγ. (even if it had only been an οὓτως)...”

Attempting accordance with Meyer, I am seeing ἀνθρώπινον in Rom. as having provided a “necessary modal definition.” Is this a correct understanding of “modal definition” --the "mode" of speaking/preaching-- along the lines Meyer is thinking? Could/would Paul have added the same in Galatians: δι’ ἀσθένειαν τῆς σαρκὸς [ἀνθρώπινον] εὐηγγελισάμην if he had intended τῆς σαρκὸς [ὑμῶν]?

Would some such change really be as necessary as Meyer suggests to make τῆς σαρκὸς [ὑμῶν] work?
Stirling Bartholomew
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Re: Gal. 4:13 as δι’ ἀσθένειαν τῆς σαρκὸς [ὑμῶν] εὐηγγ.

Post by Stirling Bartholomew »

This is a continuation of the thread from May 2015? http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/vie ... f=6&t=3106

Your question appears to be focused on an exegesis of H.A.W . Meyer's meta-language which requires a lot of guess work since were dealing with late 19th century German biblical scholarship in translation. I looked up "mode" in linguistics dictionaries and it is usually used in reference to markers that impose limitations on the verbal idea. This can be accomplished in various ways including morphology (verb mood) or the addition of various particles, adverbs or other constituents functioning as adverbs. The preaching of Paul in Galatia was performed in this manner (οὓτως) δι’ ἀσθένειαν τῆς σαρκὸς.

If Paul had the condition of the church at Galatia in mind, I think we would see some sort of qualifying expression in addition to δι’ ἀσθένειαν τῆς σαρκὸς to indicate that. Weighing probabilities while considering Paul's habitual preoccupation with his own situation, I think it is highly unlikely that the weakness (ἀσθένειαν τῆς σαρκὸς) here was a condition afflicting the church at Galatia.
C. Stirling Bartholomew
Gregory Hartzler-Miller
Posts: 122
Joined: May 23rd, 2015, 10:09 pm

Re: Gal. 4:13 as δι’ ἀσθένειαν τῆς σαρκὸς [ὑμῶν] εὐηγγ.

Post by Gregory Hartzler-Miller »

Stirling Bartholomew wrote:This is a continuation of the thread from May 2015? http://www.ibiblio.org/bgreek/forum/vie ... f=6&t=3106
Yes, I see what you mean. I probably should have made it the same thread, although in my way of thinking, it was a separate investigation.
Stirling Bartholomew wrote:Your question appears to be focused on an exegesis of H.A.W . Meyer's meta-language which requires a lot of guess work since were dealing with late 19th century German biblical scholarship in translation. I looked up "mode" in linguistics dictionaries and it is usually used in reference to markers that impose limitations on the verbal idea. This can be accomplished in various ways including morphology (verb mood) or the addition of various particles, adverbs or other constituents functioning as adverbs. The preaching of Paul in Galatia was performed in this manner (οὓτως) δι’ ἀσθένειαν τῆς σαρκὸς.
Thanks, that helps me get what Meyer is saying.
Stirling Bartholomew wrote:If Paul had the condition of the church at Galatia in mind, I think we would see some sort of qualifying expression in addition to δι’ ἀσθένειαν τῆς σαρκὸς to indicate that. Weighing probabilities while considering Paul's habitual preoccupation with his own situation, I think it is highly unlikely that the weakness (ἀσθένειαν τῆς σαρκὸς) here was a condition afflicting the church at Galatia.
That is the mainstream view. Another way of looking at it is represented by Jerome. In his view, the next clause -- καὶ τὸν πειρασμὸν ὑμῶν ἐν τῇ σαρκί μου --, describes the mode/manner of the preaching -- it was "fleshy" because Paul had "become weak to win the weak"; he had become like them, to win them so that they could become like him in imitating Christ. This was a "test" to them, necessitating a choice on their part, for or against the path of Christ who was crucified in weakness on their bahalf.

I guess Jerome saw the "modal definition" being implicit, with the "mode" of preaching described in explicit terms. It seems to me if it is possible to see a harmony of Paul's use of the key phrases in Romans, then the result is far more likely to represent Paul's thinking. Does this alternative view make sense?
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