3 John 13 εἶχον

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Jonathan Robie
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3 John 13 εἶχον

Post by Jonathan Robie »

3 John 13 wrote:Πολλὰ εἶχον γράψαι σοι, ἀλλ’ οὐ θέλω διὰ μέλανος καὶ καλάμου σοι γράφειν
How do you understand the imperfect here? How is this different from Πολλὰ ἔσχον γράψαι σοι?
ἐξίσταντο δὲ πάντες καὶ διηποροῦντο, ἄλλος πρὸς ἄλλον λέγοντες, τί θέλει τοῦτο εἶναι;
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/
Stephen Hughes
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Re: 3 John 13 εἶχον

Post by Stephen Hughes »

Jonathan Robie wrote:
3 John 13 wrote:Πολλὰ εἶχον γράψαι σοι, ἀλλ’ οὐ θέλω διὰ μέλανος καὶ καλάμου σοι γράφειν
How do you understand the imperfect here? How is this different from Πολλὰ ἔσχον γράψαι σοι?
Any type of concept of many or much tends to take an imperfective. If many is with an aorist it could well be marked.
Γελᾷ δ' ὁ μωρός, κἄν τι μὴ γέλοιον ᾖ
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)
Stephen Carlson
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Re: 3 John 13 εἶχον

Post by Stephen Carlson »

Jonathan Robie wrote:
3 John 13 wrote:Πολλὰ εἶχον γράψαι σοι, ἀλλ’ οὐ θέλω διὰ μέλανος καὶ καλάμου σοι γράφειν
How do you understand the imperfect here? How is this different from Πολλὰ ἔσχον γράψαι σοι?
States are naturally expressed in the imperfective unless there's a good reason not to.

What would be a good reason to use the aorist? Perhaps if the state was bounded, but that would imply that the writer no longer has many things to tell Gaius, which I doubt is the case.
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
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