How do you understand the imperfect here? How is this different from Πολλὰ ἔσχον γράψαι σοι?3 John 13 wrote:Πολλὰ εἶχον γράψαι σοι, ἀλλ’ οὐ θέλω διὰ μέλανος καὶ καλάμου σοι γράφειν
3 John 13 εἶχον
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3 John 13 εἶχον
ἐξίσταντο δὲ πάντες καὶ διηποροῦντο, ἄλλος πρὸς ἄλλον λέγοντες, τί θέλει τοῦτο εἶναι;
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/
http://jonathanrobie.biblicalhumanities.org/
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Re: 3 John 13 εἶχον
Any type of concept of many or much tends to take an imperfective. If many is with an aorist it could well be marked.Jonathan Robie wrote:How do you understand the imperfect here? How is this different from Πολλὰ ἔσχον γράψαι σοι?3 John 13 wrote:Πολλὰ εἶχον γράψαι σοι, ἀλλ’ οὐ θέλω διὰ μέλανος καὶ καλάμου σοι γράφειν
Γελᾷ δ' ὁ μωρός, κἄν τι μὴ γέλοιον ᾖ
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)
(Menander, Γνῶμαι μονόστιχοι 108)
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Re: 3 John 13 εἶχον
States are naturally expressed in the imperfective unless there's a good reason not to.Jonathan Robie wrote:How do you understand the imperfect here? How is this different from Πολλὰ ἔσχον γράψαι σοι?3 John 13 wrote:Πολλὰ εἶχον γράψαι σοι, ἀλλ’ οὐ θέλω διὰ μέλανος καὶ καλάμου σοι γράφειν
What would be a good reason to use the aorist? Perhaps if the state was bounded, but that would imply that the writer no longer has many things to tell Gaius, which I doubt is the case.
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
Melbourne, Australia