I found a reference to the apodosis option in a footnote in Meyer's commentary 1:229.Stephen Carlson wrote:I'm playing with the idea that καὶ οὕτως ὀφείλει γίνεσθαι is actually the apodosis, as if: "If anyone thinks he is behaving inappropriately with his virgin, if at the sexual peak, then it ought to happen this way: let him do what he wants (i.e. go through the marriage), he does not sin, let them marry." If this clause is part of the protasis, as usually taken, then I think it's referring to some (social) obligation to marry. I don't buy the idea of deliberate vagueness, though there is indeed a certain amount of euphemism going on here.
https://archive.org/stream/criticalhand ... 5/mode/2up
His negative evaluation of that option is approved by Alford, 2:533-34:
https://archive.org/stream/greektestame ... 2/mode/2up
What do you think of their argument?