Re: Errors In Revelation?
Posted: November 10th, 2017, 4:45 pm
I step out for a just a few days and we're already at three (and now four) pages???
No, it's not spurious, and it's not 50:50. The word is feminine. You are looking for something to clarify? Then look the word up in any lexicon. Examine how it's treated throughout Greek literature. Remember also that you are dealing with adjectives which use the same set of endings for masculine and feminine.Peter Streitenberger wrote: ↑November 10th, 2017, 7:15 amRandall,
>The same is true for τὴν κιβωτὸν ἀντίμιμον. Fully feminine.
Are you sure on that one? Could be but I`m not, have to check the class of this adjective, but which book I can consult, at first glance - is it irregular - and in reality feminine? Not sure, at least I. Why this? P.
After a first check: a two ender - but "fully feminine" ? No, as the mas. has the same ending, right? So spurious - 50:50. I included it as example, tagged (of course correctly , as masculine), BibleWorks rules!
If the word is consistently treated as feminine throughout Greek literature, then it should be a no-brainer that it should be read as a feminine even when modified by a two termination ( ) adjective.Peter Streitenberger wrote: ↑November 15th, 2017, 6:19 pmGood to see you back, Barry!
>Then look the word up in any lexicon
I did, but I found in the LS, that it is a two ender (do not know how you English speaking folks name it), that means: the feminine and the masculine form is one and the same. So not to determine. If I am wrong, what is correct? Errare humanum est, but as you could, one or I have to learn where the error is, in this case I am not able to decide as the morphology says feminine=masculine. Yours Peter
What we're looking for is a mismatch in gender, in order to compare with that verse in the Revelation that was brought up. There is no mismatch in the phrase that you're now trying to say is unclear. It is feminine - period - because the headnoun is feminine and the adjectives are in the proper form to agree with the headnoun, even if they are forms that could also be used with masculine nouns. This is not an ambiguous example. The gender of the noun phrase (as per its headnoun) is FEMININE. No ambiguity. No question.Peter Streitenberger wrote: ↑November 16th, 2017, 5:45 amif the accusative ἀντίμιμον in the phrase κιβωτὸν ἀντίμιμον is, as you and Randall claim, 100% feminine and 100% no masculine, then how would the masculine form be: I say it is one and the same, namely ἀντίμιμον. So not to decide, which gender.
I think this is a very clear formulation of what most people are trying to say in this thread.Barry Hofstetter wrote: ↑November 16th, 2017, 7:14 pmOne more time: the nouns in question are feminine and consistently take feminine modifiers. A small minority of adjectives in Greek are called two termination -- they have one set of endings for both the feminine and the masculine. When such an adjective modifies a second declension feminine noun, one cannot by looking at the form automatically tell if it is in fact masculine or feminine, but anyone who knows the language knows that it's feminine. Here is an example with κιβωτός:
ὥσπερ γὰρ ὁ Σιμωνίδης ἔλεγε παίζων τὴν τοῦ ἀργυρίου κιβωτὸν εὑρίσκειν ἀεὶ πλήρη τὴν δὲ τῶν χαρίτων κενήν...
Notice that it's modified by πλήρη which can be either masculine or feminine, but that the rest of it's modifiers are morphologically only feminine.