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Matthew 27:46 hina clause not in subjunctive mood

Posted: August 5th, 2020, 12:26 pm
by TonyChanYT
Matthew 27:46 About three in the afternoon Jesus cried out in a loud voice, "Eli, Eli, lema sabachthani?" (which means "My God, my God, why have you forsaken me?").
why have you forsaken me?
ἵνα τί με ἐγκατέλιπες
Why is this hina clause not in subjunctive mood?

Re: Matthew 27:46 hina clause not in subjunctive mood

Posted: August 5th, 2020, 1:56 pm
by Barry Hofstetter
ίνα τι, in some texts written as one word, is simply taken together to mean "why," and so does not take the subjunctive.

Re: Matthew 27:46 hina clause not in subjunctive mood

Posted: August 6th, 2020, 9:07 am
by Ken M. Penner
TonyChanYT wrote:
August 5th, 2020, 12:26 pm
ἵνα τί με ἐγκατέλιπες
Why is this hina clause not in subjunctive mood?
The ἵνα clause has no verb. It's just ἵνα τί. You could think of it as "You abandoned me in order to what?" if it helps you to English it differently.

Re: Matthew 27:46 hina clause not in subjunctive mood

Posted: August 6th, 2020, 2:41 pm
by RandallButh
Ken M. Penner wrote:
August 6th, 2020, 9:07 am
TonyChanYT wrote:
August 5th, 2020, 12:26 pm
ἵνα τί με ἐγκατέλιπες
Why is this hina clause not in subjunctive mood?
The ἵνα clause has no verb. It's just ἵνα τί. You could think of it as "You abandoned me in order to what?" if it helps you to English it differently.
Exactly. Consider the 'subjunctive' to be inside the τί, as if to say "in order that [it would be] what?'

Re: Matthew 27:46 hina clause not in subjunctive mood

Posted: August 6th, 2020, 3:19 pm
by Barry Hofstetter
RandallButh wrote:
August 6th, 2020, 2:41 pm
Ken M. Penner wrote:
August 6th, 2020, 9:07 am
TonyChanYT wrote:
August 5th, 2020, 12:26 pm
ἵνα τί με ἐγκατέλιπες
Why is this hina clause not in subjunctive mood?
The ἵνα clause has no verb. It's just ἵνα τί. You could think of it as "You abandoned me in order to what?" if it helps you to English it differently.
Exactly. Consider the 'subjunctive' to be inside the τί, as if to say "in order that [it would be] what?'
I must admit, I've never looked at in that way, simply seen it as another equivalent to the classical τί used in that sense, or the common διὰ τί. However, BDAG:
ἱνατί (oft. written separately; for ἱνα τί γένηται; ‘to what end?’ B-D-F §12, 3; W-S. §5, 7e; Rob. 739) why, for what reason? (Aristoph., Nub. 1192; Pla., Apol. 14 p. 26d, Symp. 205a; Epict. 1, 29, 31; LXX; PsSol 3:1; 4:1; TestAbr A 8 p. 85, 24 [Stone p. 18]; 86, 10f [St. p. 20]; TestJos 7:5; GrBar 1:2; Jos., Bell. 6, 347) Mt 9:4; 27:46 (Ps 21:2); Lk 13:7; Ac 4:25 (Ps 2:1); 7:26; 1 Cor 10:29; 1 Cl 4:4 (Gen 4:6); 35:7 (Ps 49:16); 46:5, 7; B 3:1 (Is 58:4). W. εἰς τί why and for what? D 1:5. B-D-F §299, 4.—M-M. s.v. ἵνα.
Arndt, W., Danker, F. W., Bauer, W., & Gingrich, F. W. (2000). A Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament and other early Christian literature (3rd ed., p. 477). Chicago: University of Chicago Press.