εξιλάσομαι

Forum rules
Please quote the Greek text you are discussing directly in your post if it is reasonably short - do not ask people to look it up. This is not a beginner's forum, competence in Greek is assumed.
Post Reply
Michael Davis
Posts: 1
Joined: September 14th, 2014, 10:57 pm

εξιλάσομαι

Post by Michael Davis »

Why is the Hebrew word "Kaphar" translated as εξιλάσομαι G1837.2 in the Septuagint? I don't see the connection between "covering" and "echo"?
cwconrad
Posts: 2112
Joined: May 5th, 2011, 5:52 pm
Location: Burnsville, NC 28714
Contact:

Re: εξιλάσομαι

Post by cwconrad »

Michael Davis wrote:Why is the Hebrew word "Kaphar" translated as εξιλάσομαι G1837.2 in the Septuagint? I don't see the connection between "covering" and "echo"?
I'm not sure what the reference "G1837.2" is supposed to refer to -- perhaps
Gen 32:21 καὶ ἐρεῖτε Ἰδοὺ ὁ παῖς σου Ιακωβ παραγίνεται ὀπίσω ἡμῶν. εἶπεν γάρ Ἐξιλάσομαι τὸ πρόσωπον αὐτοῦ ἐν τοῖς δώροις τοῖς προπορευομένοις αὐτοῦ, καὶ μετὰ τοῦτο ὄψομαι τὸ πρόσωπον αὐτοῦ· ἴσως γὰρ προσδέξεται τὸ πρόσωπόν μου.
The verb in question is ἐξιλάσκομαι; the form you've cited is the future 1 sg. indic. active. The Hebrew verb here used in the Masoretic text does bear the sense "propitiate", so I can't see where the problem lies.
οὔτοι ἀπ’ ἀρχῆς πάντα θεοὶ θνητοῖς ὑπέδειξαν,
ἀλλὰ χρόνῳ ζητέοντες ἐφευρίσκουσιν ἄμεινον. (Xenophanes, Fragment 16)

Carl W. Conrad
Department of Classics, Washington University (Retired)
Stephen Carlson
Posts: 3351
Joined: May 11th, 2011, 10:51 am
Location: Melbourne
Contact:

Re: εξιλάσομαι

Post by Stephen Carlson »

cwconrad wrote:
Michael Davis wrote:Why is the Hebrew word "Kaphar" translated as εξιλάσομαι G1837.2 in the Septuagint? I don't see the connection between "covering" and "echo"?
I'm not sure what the reference "G1837.2" is supposed to refer to
Looks like a Strong's Number to me.
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
Ken M. Penner
Posts: 881
Joined: May 12th, 2011, 7:50 am
Location: Antigonish, NS, Canada
Contact:

Re: εξιλάσομαι

Post by Ken M. Penner »

Michael Davis wrote:Why is the Hebrew word "Kaphar" translated as εξιλάσομαι G1837.2 in the Septuagint? I don't see the connection between "covering" and "echo"?
I suspect the confusion comes from the "Strong's" number, in which G1837 is ἐξηχέω / ἐξηχέομαι and G1837.2 is ἐξιλάσκομαι.
Ken M. Penner
Professor and Chair of Religious Studies, St. Francis Xavier University
Co-Editor, Digital Biblical Studies
General Editor, Lexham English Septuagint
Co-Editor, Online Critical Pseudepigrapha pseudepigrapha.org
Stephen Carlson
Posts: 3351
Joined: May 11th, 2011, 10:51 am
Location: Melbourne
Contact:

Re: εξιλάσομαι

Post by Stephen Carlson »

Ken M. Penner wrote:
Michael Davis wrote:Why is the Hebrew word "Kaphar" translated as εξιλάσομαι G1837.2 in the Septuagint? I don't see the connection between "covering" and "echo"?
I suspect the confusion comes from the "Strong's" number, in which G1837 is ἐξηχέω / ἐξηχέομαι and G1837.2 is ἐξιλάσκομαι.
That must be it. Note that the ".2" part covers extensions to the original scheme (I guess to cover the LXX), so if one is looking at the original or NT-only form of Strong's, one will only find ἐξηχέω "echo".
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
Post Reply

Return to “Septuagint and Pseudepigrapha”