Apologies for the dreadful pun.
I'm looking at Arrian's letter in Epictetus' discourses and I ran across this :
In bold above, μὴ is the sticking point. The sentence would appear to say that "when he said these things, it is evident he was aiming at nothing else, than not to move the opinions of those who heard towards the best things". No one translates it this way. The μἠ is apparently ignored in the translation. I've poked about the grammars a bit and there are other examples of οτι μη which translate as "... because you did not ...." depending on the verb.Arrian 5 ἀλλ᾿ ἐμοί γε οὐ πολὺς λόγος, εἰ οὐχ ἱκανὸς φανοῦμαι συγγράφειν, Ἐπικτήτῳ τε οὐδ᾿ ὀλίγος, εἰ καταφρονήσει τις αὐτοῦ τῶν λόγων, ἐπεὶ καὶ λέγων αὐτοὺς οὐδενὸς ἄλλου δῆλος ἦν ἐφιέμενος ὅτι μὴ κινῆσαι τὰς γνώμας τῶν ἀκουόντων πρὸς τὰ βέλτιστα. εἰ μὲν δὴ τοῦτό γε αὐτὸ διαπράττοιντο οἱ λόγοι οὗτοι,
Arrian 6 ἔχοιεν ἂν οἶμαι ὅπερ χρὴ ἔχειν τοὺς τῶν φιλοσόφων λόγους·
I'm aware of the double negative emphatic in Greek as in ου μη. Is this μη acting in this way here with οὐδενὸς ?
Basically my question is how does understand this use of μη in the Greek ?