There are some in the past who were keen to suggest that John had no concept of future eschatology, suggesting that a later redactor has "amended John" to put back in "orthodox" eschatology. So it was of great interest to me when I read in NAC commentary:ἀμὴν ἀμὴν λέγω ὑμῖν ὅτι ἔρχεται ὥρα ⸋καὶ νῦν ἐστιν⸌ ὅτε οἱ νεκροὶ ⸀ἀκούσουσιν τῆς φωνῆς τοῦ υἱοῦ τοῦ θεοῦ καὶ °οἱ ἀκούσαντες ⸁ζήσουσιν.
However BDAG (definition 2) for this word, explicitly defines spiritually dead within the semantic range for νεκροὶ. My greek is not yet that great, so I wondered if someone here could clear this up for me?The use of the term νεκροὶ for “the dead” in v. 25 means “dead bodies” and not merely some form of spiritual death. This concept is inherent in the Jewish understanding of resurrection, and it has been adopted in traditional Christian theology.