The Meaning of ἀρραβών (2 Cor 1.22)

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ajhalpin
Posts: 2
Joined: February 10th, 2012, 9:20 am

The Meaning of ἀρραβών (2 Cor 1.22)

Post by ajhalpin »

2 Corinthians 1:22

What is the literal meaning of this word taken from 2Corinthians in regards to an earnest or pledge. ἀῤῥαβών

Also, can anyone tell me the meaning of this transliterated phrase:

"teliki arrahbon dia"

Thank you.
Alex Hopkins
Posts: 59
Joined: June 10th, 2011, 7:15 am

Re: The Meaning of ἀρραβών (2 Cor 1.22)

Post by Alex Hopkins »

ajhalpin wrote,
2 Corinthians 1:22

What is the literal meaning of this word taken from 2Corinthians in regards to an earnest or pledge. ἀῤῥαβών

Also, can anyone tell me the meaning of this transliterated phrase:

"teliki arrahbon dia"


Interesting word. A couple of months ago a speaker visiting my church spoke on the verse you cite and made a comment on the word, but in a measure of confusion gave the correct meaning of ἀρραβών but ascribed it to another word that appears in the verse, σφραγισάμενος. As you say, ἀρραβών means earnest or pledge. You'll find interesting information in Moulton and Milligan; it's well attested in the papyri. MM point out that in Modern Greek "ἡ ἀρραβῶνα is used for 'the engagement ring'".

ἀρραβών is used in the NT at 2 Cor 1:22, 2 Cor 5:5, and Eph 1:14. In the LXX it's found at 38:17, 18, 20, and in these instances it's used in a literal sense, so it may be helpful for you to check out those references.

LSJ gives: ἀρραβών, ῶνος, ὁ, earnest-money, caution-money, deposited by the purchaser and forfeited if the purchase is not completed, ἀ. δοῦναί τινος Is.8.20, cf. Arist.Pol.1259a12, Stilpo ap.D.L.2.118, BGU446.18 (ii A.D.): pl., deposits required from public contractors, IPE12.32 B 34 (Olbia).
     2. generally, pledge, earnest, τὴν τέχνην ἔχοντες ἀ. τοῦ ζῶν Antiph.123.6; τοῦ δυστυχεῖν . . ἀ. ἔχειν Men.697, cf. Lxx. Ge.38.17, 18, Ep.Eph.1.14.
     3. present, bribe, Plu.Galb.17. (Semitic, prob. Phoenician, word, Hebr. ‘rbn: freq. written ἀραβών, UPZ67.14 (ii B.C.), Ep.Eph. l.c., etc.)
     II. ἀρραβών πρόδομα, καὶ ἄγκιστρον, Hsch. [pg 246]

Alex Hopkins
Melbourne, Australia
Mark Lightman
Posts: 300
Joined: May 6th, 2011, 6:30 pm

Re: The Meaning of ἀρραβών (2 Cor 1.22)

Post by Mark Lightman »

Alex wrote: MM point out that in Modern Greek "ἡ ἀρραβῶνα is used for 'the engagement ring'".
Interesting point. Bambas retains the word ἀρραβών, but the more recent Modern Greek version (TGV,) expanding the metaphor in a different direction, renders this with σαν πρόγευστή του, “as an appetizer of Him.” If ἀρραβών has come to mean ONLY wedding ring in MG, this would be an example of when the more literal “translation” could be a bit misleading, in that Paul was no fan of marriage. But I think “like an engagement ring” also captures very well the underlying thought of the verse, and I would accordingly paraphrase 2 Cor. 1:28b thus
ὡς μὲν οὖν τὸ πρόγευμα αὐτοῦ, ἔθηκεν ὁ Θεὸς ἐν ἡμῖν τὸ πνεῦμα, ὥσπερ δίδωσί τις τὸν δακτύλιον τοῦ γάμου!
ajhalpin wrote: Also, can anyone tell me the meaning of this transliterated phrase:

"teliki arrahbon dia"
Hi, A.J.

ἀρραβωνιάζομαι is an intransitive middle Modern Greek verb meaning “I get engaged.” I’m guessing that there could be a similar causative active ἀρραβάω. So this could mean, in modern Ancient Greek,
τήλικι ἀρραβῶν Δία.
“…arranging Zeus' engagement via Telex...”
ajhalpin
Posts: 2
Joined: February 10th, 2012, 9:20 am

Re: The Meaning of ἀρραβών (2 Cor 1.22)

Post by ajhalpin »

Thank you for your comments. Could τελικι ἀρραβῶν Διά possibly translate as "final lifelong engagement" or "ultimate lifelong guarantee"? I know it might take some linguistic acrobatics but is it remotely possible?

Regards

Andrew
Mark Lightman
Posts: 300
Joined: May 6th, 2011, 6:30 pm

Re: The Meaning of ἀρραβών (2 Cor 1.22)

Post by Mark Lightman »

A.J. asked: Could τελικι ἀρραβῶν Διά possibly translate as "final lifelong engagement" or "ultimate lifelong guarantee"? I know it might take some linguistic acrobatics but is it remotely possible?
You say “linguistic acrobatics” like it was a bad thing.

Yes, it's remotely possible. τελικός is a MG adjective meaning “final,” but who knows how long it’s been around. ἀρραβῶν’ could be short for ἀρραβῶνα which looks feminine to me, so τελικὶ ἀρραβῶν’ could be an iotacism for τελικὴ ἀρραβῶνα. Δία could be “in respect to Zeus” or the preposition διά used as an adverb without an object, “perpetually, lifelong.”

But why are we speculating? Give us the context and we’ll go from there.
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