ἐν ᾧ ἔχομεν τὴν ἀπολύτρωσιν διὰ τοῦ αἵματος αὐτοῦ τὴν ἄφεσιν τῶν παραπτωμάτων κατὰ τὸν πλοῦτον τῆς χάριτος αὐτοῦ
It seems to me that τὴν ἄφεσιν τῶν παραπτωμάτων is in apposition to τὴν ἀπολύτρωσιν διὰ τοῦ αἵματος αὐτοῦ.
Is there any other way to understand their relationship?
The same phenomenon occurs in Colossians 1:14: τὴν ἀπολύτρωσιν διὰ τοῦ αἵματος αὐτοῦ, τὴν ἄφεσιν τῶν ἁμαρτιῶν.
Then in Hebrews 9:15 there is the expression ἀπολύτρωσιν...παραβάσεων, "redemption of transgressions" which seems to almost combine the two thoughts.
Ephesians 1:7
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Please quote the Greek text you are discussing directly in your post if it is reasonably short - do not ask people to look it up. This is not a beginner's forum, competence in Greek is assumed.
Please quote the Greek text you are discussing directly in your post if it is reasonably short - do not ask people to look it up. This is not a beginner's forum, competence in Greek is assumed.
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Re: Ephesians 1:7
I've always assumed this was an instance of apposition. Do you have any reason to suggest otherwise?Mike Baber wrote:It seems to me that τὴν ἄφεσιν τῶν παραπτωμάτων is in apposition to τὴν ἀπολύτρωσιν διὰ τοῦ αἵματος αὐτοῦ.
Is there any other way to understand their relationship?
Stephen
Stephen C. Carlson, Ph.D.
Melbourne, Australia
Melbourne, Australia
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Re: Ephesians 1:7
No, no...just making sure.