Matt. 5:37 ἔστω δὲ ὁ λόγος ὑμῶν ναὶ ναί, οὒ οὔ· τὸ δὲ περισσὸν τούτων ἐκ τοῦ πονηροῦ ἐστίν.
Hi guys,
What is it that leads some translations to translate the last part of this verse as "comes from the evil one", rather than "comes from evil"?
Thanks
Matt 5:37
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This is a beginner's forum - see the Koine Greek forum for more advanced discussion of Greek texts. Please quote the Greek text you are discussing directly in your post if it is reasonably short - do not ask people to look it up.
When answering questions in this forum, keep it simple, and aim your responses to the level of the person asking the question.
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Re: Matt 5:37
It's the substantive use of τοῦ πονηροῦ. The genitive singular ending here can be either masculine or or neuter. If masculine, it refers to "the evil one." If neuter, to "evil." Which is best must be determined from context, parallel usages, and the history of interpretation.RussellAllen wrote:Matt. 5:37 ἔστω δὲ ὁ λόγος ὑμῶν ναὶ ναί, οὒ οὔ· τὸ δὲ περισσὸν τούτων ἐκ τοῦ πονηροῦ ἐστίν.
Hi guys,
What is it that leads some translations to translate the last part of this verse as "comes from the evil one", rather than "comes from evil"?
Thanks
N.E. Barry Hofstetter, M.A., Th.M.
Ph.D. Student U of FL
Instructor of Latin
Jack M. Barrack Hebrew Academy
καὶ σὺ τὸ σὸν ποιήσεις κἀγὼ τὸ ἐμόν. ἆρον τὸ σὸν καὶ ὕπαγε.
Ph.D. Student U of FL
Instructor of Latin
Jack M. Barrack Hebrew Academy
καὶ σὺ τὸ σὸν ποιήσεις κἀγὼ τὸ ἐμόν. ἆρον τὸ σὸν καὶ ὕπαγε.