συγγνώμην μοι ἔχετε· τί μοι συμφέρει ἐγὼ γινώσκω. νῦν ἄρχομαι μαθητὴς εἶναι. μηθέν με ζηλῶσαι τῶν ὁρατῶν καὶ ἀοράτων, ἵνα Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐπιτύχω. πῦρ καὶ σταυρὸς θηρίων τε συστάσεις, ⸂ἀνατομαί, διαιρέσεις⸃, σκορπισμοὶ ὀστέων, ⸀συγκοπαὶ μελῶν, ἀλεσμοὶ ὅλου τοῦ σώματος, κακαὶ κολάσεις τοῦ διαβόλου ἐπ᾿ ἐμὲ ἐρχέσθωσαν, μόνον ἵνα Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐπιτύχω.
Beyond it being a slap in the face as a challenge to how serious I take Christianity, I was wondering about the sentence "μηθέν με ζηλῶσαι τῶν ὁρατῶν καὶ ἀοράτων, ἵνα Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ ἐπιτύχω."
I read that almost as BDAG does
and then checked my translation against Holmes who renders it aslet nothing attract me (and turn me away fr. my purpose)
. Lightfoot has"May nothing visible or invisible envy me, so that I may reach Jesus Christ"
The presence of two accusatives μηθέν με which could be the subject of the infinitive is the cause of the difference in translation I am assuming.May nothing seen or unseen, fascinate me, so that I may happily make my way to Jesus Christ!
1. There is no main verb explicit here, should it be taken as a non-subordinate clause (I forget the correct term), or is there a verb I should be supplying?
2. If there is no main verb to be supplied, the infinitive seems to be functioning in the place of an optative (may I not desire/strive for anything). Is this a correct analysis?
3. What category would you stick this use of the infinitive against? I am not particularly a fan of assigning categories to everything, but want to make sure I look for more examples