2 Peter 1:1

Richard Lindeman richlind at uswest.net
Thu Aug 6 23:30:03 EDT 1998


RHutchin at aol.com wrote:
> 
> In 2 Peter 1:1 we have:...PISTIN EN DIKAIOSUNH TOU QEOU HMWN KAI SWTHROS IHSOU
> CRISTOU.
> 
> Is the translation of EN certain.
> 
> The translation is normally given as *through righteousness* so that Peter
> seems to be saying that one obtains faith in Christ through, or as a result
> of, the righteousness of Christ.
> 
> Could the translation legitimately be *in righteousness* so that we have Peter
> directing his letter to those who, like him, have faith in, or believe that,
> Christ is righteous?
> 
> Does the Greek demand the first translation or exclude the second?
> 
> ---

While the Greek does not demand the first translation it makes more
sense to me to take the prepositional phrase EN DIKAIOSUNH TOU QEOU as
being an adverbial modifier of the attributive participle 
LAXOUSIN rather than being an adjectival modifier of PISTIN. "through
righteousness" translates 
the prepositional phrase adverbially. "in righteousness" as you describe
above would seem to be the more awkward translation to me.

Rich Lindeman



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