1 John 1:9

cjgag at imap4.asu.edu cjgag at imap4.asu.edu
Tue Dec 1 12:26:00 EST 1998




On Mon, 30 Nov 1998, Mary L B Pendergraft wrote:

> Your intuition is correct:  The verbs that show up in English as
> infinitives are subjunctives in Greek, and so not past time.
> The question I felt about this verse was how we should understand the hINA
> clause:  They're usually (90% of the time?) clauses of purpose, but that
> didn't ring true in this context.  Sure enough, BAG  (sv. hINA II.1.2) cite
> this as an ex. of a result clause:  "..God is faithful and just, with the
> result that he forgives our sins....."

I figured that the reason why the two verbs are in the subjunctive are because
there is a hINA clause.

						Casey Gagnon
						Tempe, AZ




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