Rom. 1:4 EN DUNAMEI adverbial or adjectival

dalmatia at eburg.com dalmatia at eburg.com
Thu Jul 16 11:59:18 EDT 1998


David L. Moore wrote:

> >And I would add that partitive vs holistic thinking will as well be
> >determinative...  My prejudice here is that I believe the former to be
> >a Latinization of the Greek, and the latter to be Greek.
> 
>         Can you *show* any unambiguous example of "holistic thinking" in Greek
> syntax that might back up this assertion?  Also, since coming across the
> passage in Moulton's grammar about attributive prepositional phrases, I'm
> not so certain either Rom. 1:4 or 1:17 are adverbial; I'm taking a second
> look at this matter.  But I don't admit the possibility that they are *both*.

Well, ya know...  Ambiguity, you see ~ Is kinda like ~ !!The proof!! 
:-)  'Tis a self confessed prejudice, after all ~ And I am not
scholarly enough to provide you with examples 'proving unambiguously'
my point.  And I am not sure that such proof is possible, given the
radical difference in approach to understanding.

I have no idea in these two passages which is to be taken how, in
terms of either-or.  I don't even care just now, because the grammar
is at issue.  [I really am unlearned in GNT!!  Trust me on this one!]  

And I do understand your inadmittance of the hOLON take on this
construction, and am simply asking WHY?

Why MUST it be either-or?

Thank-you...

George

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