John 19:33 and Mark 15:44 both use HDH with the perfect of QNHSKW. John: HDH TEQNHKOTA Mark: HDH TEQNHKE Would the use of the pluperfect in these passages have been redundant? [viz HDH ETEQNHSKEI in Mark, for instance] Does the HDH simply stress emphatically what the pluperfect would have necessarily implied? George Blaisdell