accusative in Gal 1.9

Ian Scott iscott at unixg.ubc.ca
Fri Jun 12 15:36:04 EDT 1998



Dear b-Greekers,

I'm working on Galatians 1.9 and am confused by what seems to be the use
of the accusative case for the indirect object.  The problem clause is
this one:

	ei tis umas euaggelizetai par' o parelabete

Is umas to be considered the direct object of euaggelizetai, or is it an
indirect object (to you).  In the latter case I suppose the direct object
would be an implied "Gospel" which serves as the understood antecedent of
the relative pronoun in o parelabete.  Or am I just reading this wrong?

Thanks for your help,

Ian W. Scott
Grad student in Religious Studies, McMaster University 




More information about the B-Greek mailing list