Semantic range of PROSKUNEW (LXX)

Steven Cox scox at ns1.chinaonline.com.cn.net
Sat Jun 27 07:47:23 EDT 1998


At 00:38 98/06/27 -0700, dalmatia at eburg.com wrote:
>26:39 does indeed have Jesus prostrate in supplication to hO QEOS,
>asking for something for himself.  An inferior asking His Superior. 
>He is not, apparently, PROSKUNEWing hO QEOS in this action, and if I
>understand this right, he never does.  Men do PROSKUNEW Him, and hO
>QEOS, but not He hO QEOS.  I have no idea where all this leads, but it
>sure has my attention for the meaning of this term.

        You don't think that Christ is applying Deu5:9/6:13
        to himself in Matt4:10?         

>It just feels outrageous to me that Jesus does not once, in the entire
>GNT, worship His Father.  I just don't get it.  Jesus Christ does not
>worship God???   Why???  What relationship between them would preclude
>worship?

        Matt 17:25 maybe? Presumably the prince would receive 
        PROSKUNHSIS on the same basis as a king. Such worship
        was ascribed to the Messiah LXX Is49:7 

        KAI PROSKUNHSOUSIN AUTW, **ENEKEN KURIOU** hOTI PISTOS
        ESTIN hO hAGIOS ISRAHL 
        
        For the same reason even Israel was worshipped sometimes 
        cf.45:14. Perhaps something similar was happening in
        Classical use (Herodotus etc.) as well? 

        Rgds
        Steven




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