Divine passives
Michael Abernathy
mabernat at cub.kcnet.org
Mon Apr 19 15:25:48 EDT 1999
I am interested in the debate I found over the legitimacy of the divine passive in some of the recent entries. But I was a little confused by something. Most of the debate seemed to center around whether the Greek language influenced the Jews enough for them to utilize this convention. Blass and Debrunner in their A Greek Grammar of the New Testament and Other Early Christian Literature attribute the origin of the divine passive to the Aramaic. In fact, they claim it is typical for the Aramaic to use the passive for the actions of divine beings. My knowlege of Aramaic is insufficient to comment on this. Can someone enlighten me?
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