Mt 4:4

Jim West jwest at Highland.Net
Mon Apr 19 17:34:29 EDT 1999


At 04:00 PM 4/19/99 -0500, you wrote:
>I've got another question on the words "PANTI   RAEMATI" found in Matthew
>4:4.
>
>Specifically what does this phrase refer to?  How does the typical useage
>of the term in the 1st Century affect it's meaning?  What's the clear
>distinction in meaning from other terms such as LOGOS in a setting like
>this?  Does it apply to 'A word from the Lord for an individual
>man...implying an ongoing relationship where each man receives personal
>direction from the Lord' or does it imply the written scriptures....or
>both...or some other meaning?

It referred originally (in the OT) to the Torah.  Only.  As time progressed
it came to refer to the Hebrew Scriptures- (torah and nevi'im).  By the end
of the first century CE it referred to the whole of the OT- (torah, nevi'im,
and ketuvim).  When Mt. was written (sometime around the mid 80's CE) it
still referred only to torah and nevi'im.  It most certainly did not refer
to any NT document- because there was no NT.  Likewise, on the lips of Jesus
it did not refer to his own words.

Best,

Jim
+++++++++++++++++++++++++

Jim West, ThD
Petros Baptist Church- Pastor
Quartz Hill School of Theology- Adjunct Prof. of Bible

fax- 978-231-5986
email- jwest at highland.net
web page-  http://web.infoave.net/~jwest




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