EPI PASH TH MNEIA hUMON - Philippians 1:3

Joseph Brian Tucker music at riverviewcog.org
Wed Aug 11 17:07:16 EDT 1999


On 08/11/99, ""Joseph Brian Tucker" <music at riverviewcog.org>" wrote:

>> A dative noun or pronoun can function semantically as the subject of a
>> dative participle. The dative nominal will be coreferential with 
another
>> dative construction in the sentence. The participial construction is to 
>> be translated as an adverbial clause, changing the participle into its
>> corresponding verb with the dative nominal as its subject (Matt. 8:23 
>> EMBANTI AUTWi EIS TO PLOION HKOLOUQHSAN AUTWi). Therefore, there is a 
>> possibility of considering the subject dative with an infinitive instead 
>> of a dative participle - or am I way off base?

>Technically I think we'd want to say that the dative of EMBANTI AUTWi is
>governed by HKOLOUQHSAN, since AKOLOUQEW regularly construes with a 
>dative;then the participle EMBANTI is dative circumstantial participle in
>agreement with the AUTWi--and, of course, that would accord with the 
>pronoun no matter what case the pronoun is in. What is extraordinary in 
>this clause, however (Mt 8:23), is that the AUTWi is repeated after 
>HKOLOUQHSAN. A redundancy? Or is there a Semitism involved?

What about understanding the personal pronoun with a dative subject of 
dative absolute participle construction in (Mt. 8:23)? EMBANTI AUTWi "when 
he embarked..." Is the second AUTWi to be taken as the direct object of 
HKOLOUQHSAN "when he embarked in the boat, they followed him."

Any thoughts on the substantial MS evidence (aleph; B; C; f1,13; 33)that 
supports the omission of the definite article "a boat"? Is it an issue of 
grammatical connection with Luke 8:22. I know it is not germane to our 
dative issue, but since I have your attention, I thought I'd ask.

Thank You
Brian Tucker, M.A.
Riverview, MI



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