Acts 2:23

GregStffrd at aol.com GregStffrd at aol.com
Thu Aug 12 00:13:14 EDT 1999


In a message dated 8/11/99 12:59:33 PM Pacific Daylight Time, 
ccinc at surfree.com writes:

<<    It would seem that if given the rules of Hebrew grammar are used 
properly
 and they produce the action that Sharp's rule identifies, and the 
translation to
 the Gk. preserves what is being said in the Hebrew, then we would have 
Sharp's
 rule in the translated Gk. To say otherwise would seem to indicate that 
there is
 not a construction in the Hebrew that creates this action. Does that seem 
right
 to you? >>


Dear Chris:

I do not believe an exhaustive study of Hebrew syntax has been done to the 
extent that we can say there is a "mirror image" of Sharp's rule in Hebrew. 
However, whether there is or not the fact remains that, as you say, Sharp's 
rule would have been used in translation if in fact the translators accepted 
it as a rule that should be used to prevent ambiguity in such theologically 
significant passages as Proverbs 24:21, and others. 

Thus, we cannot accept Sharp's rule as applicable in all cases, and the 
context should play a significant role in our interpretation of any text, as 
the syntax of the passage was not written in a vacuum; rather, it was meant 
to be viewed in light of a  larger sentence, paragraph, discourse, letter and 
theology of the particular writer in question.  
 

<< BTW in the message that was sent to you and Richard there was the Gk. text 
sent in it, was it preserved or did in turn to html ?
 Thanks again
 in Christ -chris >>


No, unfortunately, it did not come through.

Sincerely,

Greg Stafford



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