The Septuaginta

Jefferson, Robert C. X2JEFFER at southernco.com
Mon Aug 30 13:48:13 EDT 1999


How do you prove Jesus used the LXX.

Even in modern synagogues most Jews read the scripture in Hebrew.
Can you show that was not the case in the 1st century Palestine?

I do not think NT quotes are enough.

Also if LXX was authoritative then why is not every OT quote from the LXX?


		
	 <<RCJefferson.vcf>> 	
		



	-----Original Message-----
	From:	Guy Lipkins [SMTP:paideutes at iol32.com]
	Sent:	Monday, August 30, 1999 7:31 AM
	To:	Biblical Greek
	Subject:	The Septuaginta

	Pondering a question for a possible upcoming article; Is the
Septuaginta 
	"authoritative" or simply "accommodative" or both. I did a research
paper
	on Gen.12:1-3 "The Call of Abraham" employing the Septuaginta (as my
Hebrew 
	is virtually nil. My professor gave me an "A" but,in his comments,
he 
	stated; "though your exposition, application and exegegis was
excellent, I 
	questioned the validity/accuracy of your use of the LXX,to stress
your 
	position. I would  be more comfortable had you used a "hebrew based
help" 
	such as "Keil & Delitzsch" or "Theological Dictionary of the Old 
	Testament".  My question is, If the LXX is the Bible that Jesus
used, was 
	it authoritative and binding, or did He merely use it to accommodate
the 
	"Hebraically Challenged" populous. Your comments and thoughts will
be 
	greatly appreciated.

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