I John 3:2 and I John 2:28

Lynn Rubier-Capron rubiercapron at earthlink.net
Thu Dec 16 23:14:16 EST 1999


I John 3:2 has a third class conditional clause which most translations
render "when."  The only exception I found on my Logos software was the
American Standard Version.  I used the same software to search the N.T., in
the NASV.  I found I John, 3:2 and 2:28 to be the only two times in which
"ean" was rendered "when."  Is there any grammatical reason why so many
translations give "ean" the meaning "when" ?  Or, might their reasons be
theological?

Thank you in advance, Lynn R.-C.

This was intended for the entire B-Greek list.  Would you please let me know
if the message just went to Jeffrey B. Gibson?  Thank you.

-----Original Message-----
From: Jeffrey B. Gibson <jgibson000 at mpdr0.chicago.il.ameritech.net>
To: Biblical Greek <b-greek at franklin.oit.unc.edu>
Date: Saturday, November 06, 1999 4:23 PM
Subject: SBL


>Just another reminder for those B-Greeks who are intending to attend the
>Boston SBL (Nov 20-23), and who have not let me know that they will be
>doing so and/or who are unaware of the informal meeting of B-Greeks on
>Saturday morning, to get in touch with me (OFF LIST).
>
>Yours,
>
>Jeffrey
>
>--
>Jeffrey B. Gibson
>7423 N. Sheridan Road #2A
>Chicago, Illinois 60626
>e-mail jgibson000 at ameritech.net
>
>
>
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